Important Announcements Important Announcements Biology CH-1 Introduction To Biology Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-1 Introduction To Biology" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The term Biology is of: Greek Origin Latin Origin English Origin German Origin None 2. The branch of biology dealing with social behavior and communal life of human beings: Human Biology Social Biology Micro-biology Biotechnology None 3. A sufficiently stable electrically neutral group of at least two atoms in a definite arrangement held together by a chemical bonds: Proton Neutron Molecule All of Above None 4. Deductive reasoning is always from: Specific to General General to Specific Qualitative to Quantitative Tentative to Exact None 5. It is growing of plant without soil: Crop Rotation Hydrostatistics Hydroponic All of Above None 6. Living together of two organisms belonging to different species is termed as: Parasitism Symbiosis Mutualism Commensalism None 7. Collection of interbreeding organisms of same species: Community Population Biosphere Both A and B None 8. Planning to reduce plant diseases by applying different strategic method is termed as: Hydroponics Chemical Control Integrated Disease Management Crop Rotation None 9. The chemicals produced by microorganisms which are capable of destroying or inhibiting the growth of another Organism: Vaccines Antitoxins Both A and B Antibiotics None 10. The period from 600 million years ago to 270 million years ago is: Azoic Era Paleozoic Era Cenozoic Era Jurassic Era None 11. An example of Micro-molecules with low molecular weight is: Water Starch Cellulose Protiens None 12. The first antibiotic to be discovered was: Streptomycin Neomycin Peniciline Chloromycetin None 13. The practice of growing several different crops on the same land in successive years or seasons to avoid pests and disease is termed as: Crop Fixation Crop Rotation Both A and B None of these None 14. It can be defined as the use of natural enemies to reduce the damage caused by a pest population: Chemical control Biological control Chemotherapy None of These None 15. A type of symbiosis in which one Organism benefits at the expense of the other: Parasitism Mutualism Comensalism Symbiosis None 16. First living organisms originated 2000 M Years Ago 3000 M Years Ago 4000 M Years Ago 5000 M Years Ago None 17. Dolly sheep was cloned in: 1993 1996 1999 2000 None 18. All a cellular eukaryotic organisms which are no longer classified as animals, plants, or fungi are placed in kingdom: Monera Protista Fungi Plantae None 19. What is true for natural cloning Asexual Reproduction in Plants and Animals Regeneration and Wound Healing Growth of Tumor Cells or Cancers All A, B and C None 20. Removal or degradation of environmental pollutant or toxins by leaving organisms is called: Bioremediation Decomposition Degradation Both A and B None 21. Which of the following is not a viral disease: Small Pox Mumps Cowpox Tatanas None 22. Which one of the following is a correct sequence in biological methods: Observations - Hypothesis - Law - Theory Observations - Hypothesis - Deduction - Testing of deduction Hypothesis - Observations - Deduction - Testing of deduction Law - Theory - Deduction - Observations None 23. A _____ is based upon observations: Hypothesis Deduction Theory Law None 24. Which one of the following is employed in treatment of cancer: Antibiotics and Vaccination Radiotherapy and Chemotherapy Chemotherapy and Antibodies All of Above None 25. Life emerges at the level of: Atom Cell Molecule Organ None 26. The technique used for preservation of milk and milk products: Pasteurization Cleaning Bioremidiation Clonning None 27. Plants having foreign DNA incorporated into their cells are called: Recombinant Plants Regenerated Plants Transgenic Plants None of These None 28. If Sparrow has wings and Sparrow is a bird, then all birds must have wings: Inductive Reasoning Deductive Reasoning Theory Law None 1 out of 6 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-2 Biological Molecules Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-2 Biological Molecules" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Which one is a protein: Cholesterol ATP There is no way of knowing without seeing the chemical reaction. Cellulase None 2. A triglyceride is a: Protein Nucleic acid Simple sugar Lipid None 3. Which is an organic molecule: Nitrogen dioxide Glucose Water Sulfuric acid None 4. Which class of molecule is the major component of cell membrane: Cellulose Phospholipids Wax Triglycerides None 5. When a protein undergoes a hydrolysis reaction the end-products are: Amino acid Nucleotides Fatty acid Monosaccharides None 6. The biological function of protein is determined by its: Primary structure Secondary structure Tertiary structure Quaternary structure None 7. The function of ATP is to: Store energy Act as a catalyst Determine the function of a cell Act as template for production of proteins None 8. All organic compounds contain the elements: Iron and oxygen Carbon and hydrogen Carbon and oxygen Carbon and nitrogen None 9. All of the following are organic compounds except: Water Enzymes ATP Glucose None 10. Nitrogen bases such as choline, ethanolamine and serine are important of: Sphingolipids Phospholipids Postphatidycoline Phosphodiester None 11. Which molecule is used for short term energy storage: Chitin Fat Cellulose Glycogen None 12. A fatty acid is unsaturated if it: Contains double bonds Contains an acidic group Bonds to glycogen Contain hydrogen None 13. ATP: Has a helical structure Is an amino acid Provide enzyme for metabolism Is high-energy molecule None 14. Steroids are classified as: Lipids Protein Carbohydrate Nucleic acid None 15. The melting point of palmetic acid is: 80⁰ C 63.1⁰ C 72⁰ C 90⁰ C None 16. The suffix that denotes a sugar is: ide ase ose amide None 17. Metabolic activities included: Photosynthesis Respiration Digestion All of Above None 18. Basic element of organic compound is: Water Carbon Aldo sugar Solid None 19. Conjugated histone proteins are: Transport proteins Only structured proteins Only regulatory proteins Structural & (Functional) Regulator protein None 20. The combining capacity of an atom or ion is called: pH Valency Elemental balance Bonding capacity None 21. Starches have unbranched chains and or insoluble in hot or cold water are: Acylglycerol Amylase Amylopectin Herbivores None 22. Cellulose is digested because of microorganisms in their track by: Omnivores Carnivores Herbivores Macrophages None 23. The nature of lipids is: Inorganic Acidic Heterogeneous Proteinaceous None 24. Terpenoids are made up of simple reporting units called: Isoprenoid units Peptide units Glycosidic unit Amino acid None 25. In aqueous medium fibrous proteins are: Ellipsoidal Square Globular Triangular None 26. The compound formed by combination of a base and a pentose sugar is called: Nucleic acid ATP Nucleotide Nucleoside None 27. The amount of DNA is fixed for a particular species as: Centromere Chromatids Chromosomes Histones None 28. Heamophilus influenza is: Virus Prion Fungi Bacteria None 29. Which one pick amino acid and transfer them to ribosome where they linked to form protein: rRNA tRNA mRNA RNA None 30. A nucleotide of DNA: Serine ATP dGTP CTP None 31. Carbon is: Bivalent Tetravalent Trivalent All of above None 32. Codon: Structural component of ribosome Histone Three adjacent nucleotide on mRNA Purine of DNA None 33. Fibrin: Fibrous protein Globular protein ATP Carbohydrate None 34. Atoms form bonds by: Gaining of electrons Loosing of electrons Sharing of electrons All A, B & C None 35. Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called: Acids Bases Amphoteric All of above None 36. Nucleotides have a nitrogenous base attached to a sugar at the: 1' Carbon 2' Carbon 3' Carbon 4' Carbon None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-3 Enzymes Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-3 Enzymes" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. An activated enzyme made of polypeptide chain and a co-factor is: Co-enzyme Substrate Apoenzyme Holoenzyme None 2. Koshland in 1959 proposed the modified form of: Unit membrane model Reflective index model Fluid mosaic model Induce fit model None 3. The detachable co-factor of an enzyme (if it is an inorganic ion) is called as: Activator Catalytic Apoenzyme Aqueous medium None 4. Medium required for enzymes vigorous activity: Colloidal Transparent Aqueous Gel None 5. Every enzyme functions effectively at: 9.00 pH Optimum pH 2.00 pH 7.00 pH None 6. The enzyme involved in the cellular respiration in the eukaryotes are found in: Chloroplast Mitochondria Aqueous medium None 7. The active site of an enzyme is composed of binding site and: Apoenzyme Catalytic Enzyme Prosthetic Group Substrate site None 8. The optimum pH value of pancreatic lipase is: 7.00 8.00 9.00 10.0 None 9. Almost all enzymes are: Fibrous proteins Globular proteins Triangular protection All of the above None 10. Even Traces of enzymes can bring about change in large amount of: Catalytic Substarte Activator Optimum None 11. Photosynthesis: Oral cavity Vitamin Globular protein Chloroplast None 12. Inhibitors: Temperature Cyanide Lock & Key model Specific in action None 13. Enzymes: Temperature Cyanide Lock & Key model Specific in action None 14. Activation energy: Temperature Cyanide Lock & Key model Specific in action None 15. Emil Fisher: Temperature Cyanide Lock & Key model Specific in action None 16. Amino acid: Globular protein Oral Cavity Chloroplast Vitamin None 17. Optimum pH value for pepsin is: 5.5 7.4 1.4 4 None 18. Chemical nature of enzymes is: Lipids Steroids Proteinaceous All of above None 19. The enzymes are sensitive to: Change in pH Change in temperature Both A & B None of these None 20. Who proposed "lock and key model" to study enzyme-substrate interaction: Koshland (1959) Fisher (1958) Willhelm Kuhne (1878) None None 21. The enzyme minus its co-enzyme is referred to as: Isoenzyme Apoenzyme Both None None 22. Non protein components of enzymes are known as: Coenzymes Activators Cofactors All of above None 23. Consider this reaction A + B → C + D + energy This reaction is exergonic And enzyme could speed the reaction A and B are reactants and C and D are products All of above None 24. And un-catalysed reaction requires a: Higher activation energy Lower activation energy Moderate activation energy None None 25. Many enzymes function by _______ the activation energy of the reaction: Increasing Promoting Lowering All of above None 26. The binding of the substrate to the enzyme alters the structure of the enzyme: Lock and key hypothesis Induced fit hypothesis Fisher's hypothesis None None 27. An enzyme is generally named by adding ______ to the end of the name of the: "-ase". Coenzyme "-ose". Substrate "-ase". Apoenzyme "-ase". Substrate None 28. Enzyme function as: Organic catalyst Inorganic catalyst Inhibitors All of above None 29. When the final product of the metabolic pathway turn off the first step of the metabolic pathway it is: Positive feedback Negative feedback Comparative feedback Both A & C None 30. The enzymes are classified into: Four groups Five groups Six groups Seven groups None 31. Non protinious part of hollow enzyme is: Prosthetic group Apoenzyme Holoenzyme None None 32. The function of competitive inhibitors is defined by there ability to interact or bind to: Active site of the enzyme Competitive inhibitors Substrate complex None None 33. What is cofactor: Inorganic Ion Organic Molecules Both A & B Nome None 34. Zn⁺² is an inorganic activator for enzyme: Carbonic Anhydrase Phosphate Chymotrypsin Maltase None 35. DDT and parathion are inhibitors of key enzymes in: Nervous System Respiratory system Digestive system Circulatory system None 1 out of 7 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-4 The Cell Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-4 The Cell" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. One of the following is not double membranous structure: Mitochondria Vacuole Chloroplast Nucleus None 2. Ribosomes are chemically composed of: Protien Only DNA RNA Both A & C None 3. Tay Sach's disease is because of: Accumulation of proteins Accumulation of glycogen Accumulation of lipids Accumulation of vitamins None 4. Detoxification of harmful drugs is the function of: RER SER Both A & B None of above None 5. Which type of cell would probably be most appropriate to study chloroplast: Conducting cell Photosynthetic cell Pericycle cell All options are correct None 6. Cell wall consists of: One main layer Two main layers Three main layers Four main layers None 7. The intake of solid food by infolding of cell membrane is called: Exocytosis Phagocytosis Pinocytosis Both B and C None 8. Microtubules consist of helically stacked molecules of protein: Actin Myosin Keratin Tubulin None 9. Which of the followings are regularly assembled and dissembled during cell cycle: Microtubules Intermediate filaments Both A and B None of these None 10. Leucoplasts are found in: Petals Ripened fruits Underground parts Leaves None 11. Lysosomes have: Single-layered membrane Double-layered membrane Three-layered membrane No membrane None 12. The door to your house is like _____ of a cell membrane: Phospholipid bilayer Integral protein Recognition protein Peripheral protein None 13. Dye injected into a plant cell might be able to enter an adjacent cell through a: Tight junction Microtubule Desmosome Plasmodesma None 14. The transport Vesicles from the Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) fuse with the _____ of the Golgi apparatus: Cis face Trans face Coated face Both A and B None 15. In which organelle following reaction takes place: Mitochondrion Paroxisome Chloroplast Glyoxysome None 16. What is the power of the objective lens of a microscope if an eyepiece of power 10x is used and the total Magnification of the object is 40x: 4 10 40 100 None 17. Within chloroplasts, light is captured by: Grana within cisternae Thylakoids within grana Cisternae within grana Grana within thylakoids None 18. Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function: Mitochondria - photosynthesis Nucleus - cellular respiration Ribosome - manufacture of lipids Central vacuole - storage None 19. By which of the following can movement of materials across animal cell membranes be accomplished: 1. Active transport, 2. Diffusion, 3. Pinocytosis 1 only 2 only 1 and 2 only All 1, 2 & 3 None 20. Hydrogen peroxide degradation in a cell is a function of: Ribosomes Mitochondria Peroxysomes Glyoxysomes None 21. Each chloroplast encloses a system of flattened, membranous sacs called: Cristae Thylakoids Plastids Cisternae None 22. Which one of the following is an exception to cell theory: Bacteria Viruses Protists Protozoan None 23. Dictyosome is also known as: Golgi body Ribosome Lysosome Peroxisome None 24. The three dimensional network of protein filaments within the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cells is called the: Endoplasmic reticulum Golgi apparatus Cytoskeleton None of these None 25. Which of the following structure-function pairs is mismatched: Lysosome - intracellular digestion Golgi body - secretion of cell products Ribosome - protein synthesis Glyoxisome - detoxification None 26. Which of the following cell part is described as a "fluid mosaic": Chloroplast Vacuole Cell membrane Endoplasmic reticulum None 27. An animal has 80 chromosomes in its gametes, how many chromosomes would you expect to find in this animal's brain cells: 120 150 160 170 None 28. The length of each mitochondrion is about: 1.0 um 0.2 um 10 um 12 um None 29. Somatic cells of a human have ______ chromosomes and are called: 10, haploid 92, diploid 46, haploid 46, diploid None 30. Chromosomes with equal arms is called: Metacentric Acrocentric Sub-metacentric Telocentric None 1 out of 6 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-5 Variety of Life Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-5 Variety of Life" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. In the two kingdom systems which of these would characterize as animal: Photosynthesis Inability to move Cellulose cell wall Ingestion of food None 2. The Five Kingdom system of classification was proposed by: Robert Whittaker Karlene and Margulis E- chattas Linnaeus None 3. A set of related genera would be grouped into a: Family Order Species Class None 4. In the scientific name of Onion Allium ceipa the Allium belongs to its: Genus Order Species Family None 5. Which of the following illness is caused by retrovirus? AIDS Malaria Typhoid Sleeping sickness None 6. Which does not describe viruses? They exhibit some but not the entire characteristic associated with living organisms They are obligate intracellular parasite Each has both DNA and RNA in it A protein capsid surrounds the nucleic acid portion None 7. What is the most effective protection against viral infections? Antibiotic Washing hands Natural immunity of the host Disinfectants None 8. The human Immunodeficiency virus primarily effects: Helper T cells Red blood cell Plasma cells Killer T cell None 9. Viruses are considered nonliving because: Their nucleic acid does not code for protein They cannot reproduce independently They don't mutate They do not locomote None 10. Which of these is a true statement? New viral ribosomes from after viral DNA enters in the cell Viruses carry with them their own machinery for protein formation Viruses do not need ribosome for protein formation Voices use the hosts ribosomes for their own ends None 11. Which part of animal viruses is not produced in multiple copies? Envelope DNA Protein Capsid None 12. Which is not true of prokaryotes? Are living cells Are both archaea and bacteria All are parasitic Lack a membranous bounded structure None 13. Vaccine is not available for which virus: HBV HCV HAB HIV None 14. Who introduced the system for naming of Organism known as binomial nomenclature? Carlos Linnaeus D'Herelle Twort Stanley None 15. Edward Jenner first vaccinated an 08 years old boy with bus from Cowpox lesion. 1796 1797 1794 1795 None 16. How many caspomeres are present in the capsid of Herpes virus? 163 161 162 160 None 17. In general appearance cubical phase are regular solid or: Triangular Ellipsoidal Rectangular Icosahedral None 18. Tail of bacteriophage has an enzyme for dissolving a portion of bacterial cell wall: Tylin Lipases Ribozymes Lysozyme None 19. List of names of animal: 1758 1969 1789 1858 None 20. Virion: Proactive agents used to stimulate immune system Nucleocapsid Lytic phage Double standard DNA None 21. Organism with prokaryotic cells belong to the kingdom: Protista Fungi Monera Animalia None 22. Linnaeus developed the system of nomenclature which we still use today is: Common Binomial Scientific Phase None 23. A group of organisms at any particular level in a classification system is called a: Species Taxon Genus Phylum None 24. The seven bones in the human neck correspond with the same seven, much larger, neck bones in the giraffe .They are: Analogues Homologues Vestiges All [A], [B] and [C] None 25. If you compare a human arm with a front leg of an alligator or horse or the flipper of a whale or a bat's skin covered wing then it will be helpful to you to classify these animals on the basis of: Genetics Analogy Homology Biochemistry None 26. Which of the following groups would contain the largest number of organisms? Class Order Phylum Family None 27. What do plants and animals have in common? Both are heterotrophic Both are autotrophic Both are prokaryotic Both are eukaryotic None 28. Which of the following is necessary for a virus to reproduce? A living host sell A vaccine A high body temperature Sunlight, water, and food None 29. All viruses: Contain DNA Contain RNA Contain protein Are intracellular parasites None 30. An example of latent period In which DNA of phage is integrated with the DNA of host coli chromosome is: Lysis Lysogenic-phase Prophage Attenuated virus None 31. HIV is: Plus Strand virus Un -enveloped minus strand virus Retrovirus Large genome virus None 32. Small pox, yellow fever, Diphtheria, Herpes, Tetanus,Mumps, Citrus, canker,Typhoid, AIDS, Measles are some examples of diseases, How many of them are caused by viruses? 4 3 2 6 None 33. The viruses whose genome act directly as messenger RNA after infecting a host cell are called: Plus strand DNA viruses Minus strand RNA viruses Plus strand RNA viruses Minus strand DNA viruses None 34. Living organisms can be classified on the basis of: Homology Cytology Biochemistry All of these None 35. When a bacteriophage is integrated into a cellular genome it is called a: Macrophage Microphage Prophage Lytic- phage None 36. A plant infected from an external source of virus through injured parts is: Vertical transmission Horizontal transmission Retrograde transmission None of these None 37. During lytic cycle how many phages are released from infected host cell: 100-300 100-500 100-200 100-400 None 38. The immune system protects the body from diseases.Because the AIDS virus weakens the immune system therefore: People with AIDS are some vulnerable to other diseases The AIDS virus is spread very easily People with AIDS are immune to all other diseases All of the above None 39. Some RNA viruses have no DNA stage. Messenger RNA is synthesized from an RNA template. These viruses are: Plus strand RNA viruses Minus strand RNA viruses Bacteriophages Variola viruses None 40. Reverse transcription, carried out by retroviruses is the process by which? RNA is duplicated DNA is duplicated RNA information is copied into DNA DNA information is copied into RNA None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-6 Kingdom Prokaryote (Monera) Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-6 Kingdom Prokaryote (Monera)" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The first scientist who observed microbes was: Leeuwenhoek Louis Pasteur Robert Koch Heckle None 2. Germ theory of diseases was given by: Leeuwenhoek Louis Pasture Robert Koch Heckle None 3. The smallest bacterium is: E. Coli Mysoplasma Epulopiscum Staphylococci None 4. The rode shaped bacteria are: Cocci Bacilli Sprillium None of above None 5. The long chain of cocci bacteria in which cell division occurs in one plane is called: Deplococcus Streptrococcus Tetrad Sacrcina None 6. Which of the followings is Curved or comma Shaped Spiral? Vibiro Spirllium Spirochete None of the above None 7. A bacterium with single polar flagellum is called: Atrichous Monotrichous Lophotrichous Amphitrichous None 8. A bacteria in which flagellum surround it is called: Atrichous Monotrichous Lophotrichous Amphitrichous None 9. Which of the following structures makes the cell wall sticky? Capsule Slime Pili Flagella None 10. Gram positive cell wall have peptidoglycan: 10 % 20 % 40 % 50 % None 11. The thickness of cell wall of gram negative bacterium is: 1 - 5 nm 1 - 7 nm 8 - 9 nm 8 - 11 nm None 12. The plasma membrane and every thing present in it is called: Cytoplasm Protoplast Nucleoid Matrix None 13. The extra nuclear double standard DNA in bacteria are called: Nucleoid Chromosome Plasmid None of the above None 14. The ribosome of bacteria are: 60S 70S 80S 90S None 15. The resistant structure developed during reproduction of vegetative cells of bacteria is called: Plasmids Mesosomes Slime Cysts None 16. The photosynthetic bacteria release: CO₂ Oxygen Sulphur None of the above None 17. In which phase the growth of bacteria is equal? Lag Phase Log Phase Stationary phase Decline None 18. Which of the following is not sterillization method for controlling bacteria? Filtration High temperature Antiseptics Radiation None 19. Which of the following antibiotic causes allergic reactions? Streptomycin Tetracycline Penicillin None of the above None 20. The barrel shaped cells present in the filaments of cyanobacteria are called Heterocysts Trichome Hormogonia Akintes None 21. The thick wall reproductive cell of the cyanobacteria are called: Heterocusts Trichome Hormogonia Akintes None 22. Antone Van Leeuwenhoek firstly observed small creatures in rain: Water Rain water Saliva Infusion None 23. The smallest bacteria on the earth are: Myso plasma Escherichia coli Staphylococci Epulopiscium fishlesoni None 24. When division occurs in random planes, it will produce an arrangement called: Diplococcus Strptococcus Tetrad Staphylococcus None 25. Chemotaxis is phenomenon in which an Organism: Eat a chemical Detect a chemical Show response to a chemical Change a chemical None 26. Which of the following structure is used in sexual reproduction of bacteria? Cell wall Endospore Capsule Pili None 27. Arrange the position of cell membrane, cell walls, slime and capsule from outer to inner surface: Cell wall- Cell membrane- Slime- Capsule Capsule -Slime- Cell wall- cell membrane Slime -Capsule- Cell wall -Cell membrane Cell wall- Capsule- Slime- Cell membrane None 28. Which of the following are the characteristics of Gram negative cell wall? It has two major layers It is more permeable It has outer membrane It has lipids 1 to 4% None 29. Which of the following is not the function of membrane? It regulate the control of material It contained respiratory enzyme It plays role in division of self None of the above None 30. Which of the following are chemosynthetic bacteria: The bacteria which synthesize food from organic compounds The bacteria which synthesized food from inorganic compounds The bacteria which release energy from organic compounds The bacteria which release energy from the inorganic compounds None 31. The bacterial growth becomes equal with death rate in the: Lag Phase Log Phase Stationary phase Decline phase None 32. Sexual reproduction in bacteria takes place by: Fusion of gamete Fusion of nuclei Exchange of nucleic Exchange of part of DNA None 33. Which of the following methods do not come within the method of sterilization? Use of filter paper to filter water Boiling of water Wash in the toilet with phenyl Use of rays None 34. Which of the following is disinfectant: Quinine Phenyl Dettol Sodium bicarbonate None 35. Which of the following is relevant to vaccine: A vaccine is compound which kills germ A vaccine is the name of a drug A vaccine is synthesized from plants A vaccine is derived from the germs None 36. The antibiotic pencillin is not used today because: It has become ineffective It is too costly to be used by the patients It causes allergic reaction It is not available in market None 37. A person eats a drug and becomes deaf. Which drug he might have eaten? Quinine Streptomycin Penicillin Tetracycline None 38. the cyanobacteria are also called blue green algae because: They have blue green cell wall They have blue green chloroplast They have blue green pigments None of the above None 39. The broken piece of filament of cyanobacteria is called: Trichome Hormogonia Heter Cysts Akinete None 40. Super blue green algae is cyanobacteria which: Pollute water Has nutritional value Causes disease in man None of the above None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-7 The Kingdom Protista Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-7 The Kingdom Protista" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. who amongst the following formed group of prokaryotes within protesters in 1861? John Hogg Earnest Haeckle Herbert Copland Robert Whittaker None 2. Who amongst the following separated the prokaryotes from the protista and gave it the status of kingdom? Johan Hogg Earnest Haeckal Herbert Copland Robert Whittaker None 3. How many phyla of protoctista formed by Margulis and schwartz? 17 23 27 29 None 4. Euglena belongs to Phylum: Zooflagellates Amoebas Actinozoan Foraminifer None 5. Vorticella belongs to: Ciliates Amoebas Actinozoan Foraminifer None 6. Which of the following Zooflagellates lives as symbionts in the gut of termites? Trichonymphas Trypanosoma Choanflagellaes None of above None 7. Which of the following does cause sleeping sickness? Trichonymphas Trypanosoma Choanflagellaes None of above None 8. The shape of the ciliates is maintained by: Cell wall Cell membrane Pellicle Cilia None 9. Conjugation takes place in which of the following protozoans? Ciliates Amoebas ActinoPoda Formainifera None 10. The shell of actinopoda is made up of: Silica Calcium carbonate Spongin fibers None of above None 11. In man, Plasmodium first enters into the: RBC Liver Salivary gland None of above None 12. 50 to 60% Photosynthesis in the earth takes place by: Plants Algae Photosynthetic bacteria Cyanobacteria None 13. Flagella are absent in which of the following groups of algae? Eugenophyta Rhodophyta Chrysophyta Phaeophyta None 14. Which of the following pigments is absent in dinoflagellates? Chlorophyll A Carotenes Xanthophyll Fucoxanthin None 15. Which of the followings is stem like? Blades Holdfast Stipes Kelps None 16. Which of the following is a unicellular alga? Spirogyra Chlorella Volvox Ulva None 17. Which of the following is not obtained from algae? Algin Carrageenan Agar None of above None 18. Phytophthora causes which of the following disease in potato? Fire blight Late blight Red rots Mildew None 19. Which of the following reason is not valid reason for the formation of protista as a separate kingdom? None of them could fit themselves in any other kingdom They are unicellular organisms They are ancestors of all other kingdoms They do not produce less blastula and embryo None 20. Which of the following reasons seems to be most reasonable for not placing protista in other kingdom: None of them could fit themselves in any other kingdom Most of them are unicellular or have simple multi cellular body They are ancestors of all other kingdoms They do not produce blastula and embryo None 21. The difference between the kingdom protista of Robert Whittaker and Margulis and schwartz is: Whittaker placed simple Organism in Protista while Margulia and Schwartz place complex organisms in Protista Whittaker placed unicellular organism while Margulis an Schwartz placed unicellular and simple multicellular organism Whittaker did not place fungi and fungi like protista while Margulis and Schwartz did None of above None 22. Which of the following character is not of zooflagellates? These protista are mostly unicellular. A few organisms are colonial They have spherical or elongated bodies They have single central nucleus They have pseudopodia None 23. Which of the following Zooflagellates is the possible ancestor of sponge? Trichonymphas Tryphanosoma Choanoflagellates None of above None 24. Which of the followings is not a function of macronucleus? Control of nutrition Sexual reproduction Control of metabolism Control of movement of Cilia None 25. Which of the following will take part in the formation of coral reefs? Amoebas Forminifera Apicomplexans Ciliates None 26. A thallus is a body: Having no specific structure Having roots, but stem and leaves are absent Having stem but no true leaves or roots Having no specific root, stem and leaves None 27. Some biologists believe that Euglena is an animal,because: It can move It lacks cell wall It reproduce like plants It can ingest food like animals None 28. Which characteristic of the following is not shown by Diatoms? They are usually unicellular They do not have Cilia as locomotory organs Their pigments are chlorophyll a,chlorophyll c, carotenes and fuoxanthin The cell wall of each diatom consists of two shells None 29. The kelps are: Small red algae Large red algae Small brown algae Large brown algae None 30. Green algae are supposed to be ancestor plants because: They perform photosynthesis like plants Their bodies is plant like Their pigments are plant like Some of them are multicellular like plants None 31. Fungus like protists is not placed in Fungi because: Their body is not fungi like Their method of reproduction is not plant like Their cell wall is not plant like None 32. Phytophthora infestansi is notorious in human history because: It has caused many diseases in man It has caused famine for man It has destroyed many animals None of above None 33. The sexual process exhibited by most ciliates is called: Oogamy Fertilization Binary fission Conjugation None 34. Algae in which body is differentiated into blade, stipe and hold fast belong to: Kelps Euglenoids Golden algae Green algae None 35. The Kingdom Protista contains how many major groups of eukaryotic organisms? Five Three Two Four None 36. In which year Herbert Copeland elevated the prokaryotes to the status of kingdom? 1932 1938 1931 1929 None 37. Which of these is an example of Foraminifera? Plasmodium Protists Limestone Foramis None 38. Paramecium, vorticella and stentor belong to the group: Ciliata Silica Limestone Tsetse None 39. Which of these has multiple membrane- bound nuclei but none of the other organelles? Giant amoeba Foramis Ciliata Plasmodium None 40. Slime mold: Macrocystis Chrysophyta Myxomycota Chondrus None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-8 Fungi Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-8 Fungi" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The number of species of fungi are: 80,000 90,000 100,000 110,000 None 2. Which of the following fungi is used in breweries? Truffles Morels Rust Penicllium None 3. Which of the following is resemblance of fungi with animals? Mitosis Spores Chitin Hyphae None 4. The body of fungus is called: Hyphae Thallus Mycelium Ceonocytes None 5. Which of the following is non-hyphal fungus? Truffles Yeast Rust Penicllium None 6. Which of the following fungi have haustoria? Saprotophs Parasites Predators Mutualistic None 7. The association in which both organisms get benefits is called: Saprotrophs Parasites Predators Mutualistic None 8. Which of the following is true for mushrooms whose gills glow in the dark? Amanita verna Truffles Agaricus Omphalotus Olearius None 9. The lichens which form branching system are called: Crustose Foliose Fruticose None of these None 10. An outgrowth in fungi which detaches and forms new hyphae is called: Spore Conidia Fragment Bud None 11. The fusion of cytoplasm of fungi is called: Plasmogamy Karyogamy Cytogamy Oogamy None 12. Rhizopus belongs to which of the following groups? Zygomycota Ascomycota Basidiomycota Deutromycota None 13. Rusts belongs to which of the following groups? Zygomycota Ascomycota Basidiomycota Deutromycota None 14. The number of species of ascomycota is: 60,000 50,000 40,000 20,000 None 15. Ascospores are formed by meiosis. The number of Ascospores spores in an ascus is: 2 4 6 8 None 16. Club fungi are: Zygomycota Ascomycota Basidiomycota Deutromycota None 17. Which of the following is smut? Ustilago Aspergillus Puccinia None of the above None 18. Sexual reproduction is absent in which of the followings? Zygomycota Ascomycota Basidiomycota Deutromycota None 19. Which of the following fungi is used for producing soya paste: Yeasts Penicillum Aspergillus Neurospora None 20. Natural dyes are obtained from fungi: yeasts Penicillium Aspergillus Neurospora None 21. Which of the following drugs is used to relieve to relieve headache? Penicillin Lovastatin Cyclosporine Ergotine None 22. Which of the following becomes more active in defective immune system like AIDS? Penicillin Lovastatin Cyclosporine Aspergillosis None 23. Which of the following is not a similarity of fungus with plants? Both have cell wall Both lack centrioles Both are autotrophic Both are non - motile None 24. In mitosis of fungi: Nuclear membrane disappear Nucleoli disappear Fungi are absorptive heterotrophs Fungi are non- motile None 25. The world's largest Organism may be: An algae A fungi A plant An animal None 26. Bioindicators are the organisms which: Indicate about the change in season Indicate about the change in environment Indicate about the change in structural change in organisms None of the above None 27. Sexual reproduction in fungi takes place by: Fusion of gametes Fusion of hyphae Fusion of nuclei Fusion of cytoplasm None 28. Deutromycota is a group of fungi in which: Ascospores are present Sexual reproduction is present Sexual reproduction is absent Basidiospores are present None 29. Parasexuality is a phenomenon in which: Exchange of gametes between different hyphae Exchange of gametes within the same hyphae Exchange of part of chromosome between two hyphae Exchange of part of chromosome in the same hyphae None 30. The blue green color of Pencillium is due to the presence of: Blue hyphae Blue gametes Blue spores Blue conidia None 31. Which function of the fungi do you believe to be most important? Decomposition Fungi used as food Bioindicator Bioremediation None 32. Lovastatin is used: For lowering the blood pressure For lowering the blood cholesterol For removing germs from the body For lowering body temperature None 33. Histoplasmosis is a: Heart disease Lung disease Kidney disease None of the above None 34. Fungi resemble plants because they: Have cell wall lack centriole Are non- motile None of the above None 35. The number of ascospores inside each ascus is commonly: 12 10 8 6 None 36. Which of the following is associated with sexual reproduction in fungi? Ascospores Zygosores Conidia Basidiospores None 37. Which of the following is a major structural component of fungus cell wall? Cellulose Peptidoglycan Chitin Lignin None 38. What percentage of all kinds of vascular plants has mycorrhizal mutualistic association with fungi? 93 95 97 99 None 39. How many species of mushrooms, morals and truffles are edible? 100 400 200 300 None 40. Saprobes: Source of an antibiotic Non- motile asexual spores Mass of hyphae Decomposer None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-9 Kingdom Plantae Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-9 Kingdom Plantae" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The number of species of plants is: 340,000 350,000 30,000 370,000 None 2. Mosses belongs to: Bryopsida Anthpcerotae Hepaticopsida Lycopsida None 3. Funaria is an example of: Bryopsida Anthocerotae Hepaticopsida Lycopsida None 4. Which of the following is the male reproductive cell? Antheridia Archegonia Anthrozooids Oocyte None 5. Which of the following is not a character of monocots: Petals 5 or multiple of five Single cotyledon Scatterd vascular bundle Parallel Venatian None 6. The vascular plants are: Bryophytes Embryophytes Tracheophytes None of the above None 7. Which of the following is called Whisk Fern? Filicineae Psilopsida Sphenopsida Lycopsida None 8. Which of the following group of plants have microphylls? Rhynia Lycopodium Adiantum Gingko None 9. Circinate venation is present in: Rhynia Lycopodium Adiantum Gingko None 10. Oosphere is formed in the: Neck Venter Antheridium Capsule None 11. The evolution of seed occurs in: Triassic period Carboniferous period Devonian period Silurian period None 12. Which of the following structure is absent in gymnosperms? Pollen Archegonium Ovary None 13. The female gametophyte of angiosperms are composed of: 3 cells 5 cells 7 cells 9 cells None 14. The number of petals in monocots is: 4,5 or multiple 3 or multiple 4 or multiple 5 or multiple None 15. Which of the following is the characteristic of the Flower of the Rosaceae? Unisexual Perigynnous Actinomorphic Sessile None 16. Number of petals in family Rosaceae are: 3 4 5 6 None 17. The branches of which tree are used as walking sticks: Pyrus Crataegus Rose Almond None 18. Capsicum frutenscens is a: Potato Tobacco Tomato Red pepper None 19. Vitamin C is present in the fruit of: Physalis Solanum turbersum Capsicum annum Lysopersicum None 20. The number of species of family Fabaceae are: 3000 6000 9000 12000 None 21. The fruit of family Fabaceae is a: Nut Pod Cryopsis None of above None 22. vegetable oil is obtained from: Hypogea Medicago Dalbergia Clitoria None 23. The number of species of Caesalpiniaceae present in Pakistan is: 300 500 40 60 None 24. Number of caylx in family Caesalpiniaceae is: 3 4 5 6 None 25. The total number of species of mimosaceae is: 2000 2200 2800 2600 None 26. Which of the following plants is the ''kikar'': Acacia nilotica Albizzia lebbek Mimsoa podica Prosopis cineraria None 27. Gum is obtained from: Acacia nilotica Albizzia lebbek Mimosa podica Prosopid cineraria None 28. The number of genera of the family Gramineae is: 300 500 600 700 None 29. The grasses are: Annual herbs Annual tree Perennial tree None of the above None 30. which of the following is the characteristics of the flower of family poaceae? Large Pedicillate Complete Hypogynous None 31. The fruit if family poaceae is a: Nut Caryopsis Pod Legume None 32. Sugar is obtained from: Zea mays Avena sativa Saccharum munja Saccharum officinarum None 33. Which of the following is not the character of the bryophytes? Vascular system absent Gametophyte dominate Gametophyte attached to sporophyye Homosporous None 34. which of the following is not the characteristics of gametophte of the bryophytes? Haploid Dominant Dependent Free living generation None 35. The vascular bundles in a monocot stem are: Mimosaceae Heterospory Scattered Angiasperms None 36. Double fertilization is the characteristics feature of: Axile Solanaceae Angiosperms Scattered None 37. The leaves of which plant are used to cure ring worm and skin diseases. Cassia fistula Capsicum annum Cassia alata None of these None 38. All seeds producing plants are called: Spermatophytes Circinate vernation Ramenta Heterosporous None 39. First complete seeds appeared about how many millions years ago? 365 366 364 367 None 40. Pteropsida is divided into how many classes? 3 5 4 6 None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-10 Kingdom Animalia Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-10 Kingdom Animalia" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Which of the following is not the characteristics of grade Radiata? Bilateral Symmetry Anterior end Diploblastic Ventral None 2. Which of the following phyla is acoelomate? Annelida Nematoda Platyhelminthes Arthropoda None 3. Asexual reproduction in sponges take place by: Fragmentation Gemmule Gonad Binary fission None 4. Which of the following is not a sponge? Scone Laucosolenia Physalia Euplectella None 5. Match gastrozooid with: Polyps Medusa Zooid None of the above None 6. Which of the following structures is used for asexual reproduction in: Balstostyle Gastrozooid Gonozooid None of the above None 7. Which of the following is sea anemone? Obelia Actinia Madrepore Physalia None 8. Polymorphism is present in which of the following? Obelia Actinia Madrepore Hydra None 9. Which of the followings is liver fluke? Taenia Fasciola Schistosoma Dugesia None 10. The excretory system of flat worms is composed of: Ganglia Flamae cell Nephridia Nephron None 11. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of Phylum Annelida? Nephridia Metameric segmentation Parapodia Setae None 12. Match digestive system with one of the following: Nephrida Parapodia Prostomium Metameric None 13. Excretion in annelids take place by: Flame cells Nephrida Malpighian tubes None of above None 14. Which of the following coeloms is present phylum Arthropoda? Segmentation Jointed foot Haemocoel Malphighian tubes None 15. Which of the followings is not the respiratory organ in arthropods? Gills Tracheae Book lungs None of above None 16. Which of the following developmental stages in insects is similar to adult? Egg Larve Pupa Nymph None 17. Which of the following insects does spread cholera? House fly Tsetse flt Mosquito None of above None 18. Water enters into the water vascular system through: Ostia Spines Madreporite Mouth None 19. Which of the following characteristics is not fundamental characteristic for chordates in the following? Notochord Hollow dorsal CNS Vertebral column Gill Slits None 20. The scales present in the chondrichthyes are: Ganiod Cycloid Ctenoid Placoid None 21. Which of the following is not relevant to birds: Feathers Airs sacs Bladder Syrinx None 22. Match ''running bird'' with one of the followings: Sparrow Hen Kiwi Parrot None 23. According to W. Whittaker, Animals are placed: Only in Kingdom Animalia Only in Kingdom protista Both in kingdom animalia and protista Only in monera None 24. Pseudocoel is a false coelom because: It is a reduced cavity It is not derived from true body cavity It is not derived from the mesoderm It is not derived from the true coelom None 25. Which of the following function is not performed by polyps of coelenterate colony? It is responsible for nutrition It is responsible for asexual reproduction It is responsible for sexual reproduction It is responsible for defence of the colony None 26. Which of the following is the characteristic of parasite? It does not have well developed respiratory system It does not have well developed digestive system It does not have well developed reproductive system It does not have well developed circulatory system None 27. Which of the following methods is used for disinfestations of flat worms? Use boiled milk Use boiled water Use boiled meat Use boiled food None 28. In which of the following classes of the Annelida, parapodia are present: Class Polychaeta Class Oligochaeta Class Hirudinea None of above None 29. The coelom of the arthropods is called haemocoel beacuse: They do not have true coelom Their coelom contain blood Their coelom is not mesodermal in origin None of above None 30. Exchange of gasses in arthropods takes by: Blood Trachea Vessels None of above None 31. Which of the following factors has made the arthropod most successful animals? They have jointed appendages They have wings They they have exoskeleton of chitin They have layer of cutin None 32. The importance of moulting or ecdysis in arthropods is that: It makes the body of arthropods more strong It helps the arthropods to grow It is used for reproduction None of the above None 33. Which of the following is a difference in molluscs and arthropods? Exoskeleton Segmentation Coelom None of the above None 34. The color of blood of Mollusca: Red White Blue Green None 35. Which of the following echinoderms is Star shaped with long arm? Cake urchin Starfish Brittle Star Sea urchin None 36. Which of the following is not a chordate character? Gill slits are present in all the chordates throughout their life Gill slits are present only in lower chordates Gill slits are present only in higher chordates Gill slits are present in only in embryonic stage None 37. Boney Skeleton is present in: Cyclostomata Chondrichthyes Osteichythes None of above None 38. Which of the following is not the adaptation in fish for aquatic mode of life: They have gills They have fins They have cartilaginous skeleton They have streamline body None 39. Tuatara [Sphenodon] is found in: Pakistan Australia New Zealand America None 40. Which of the following characteristics of the Archaeopteryx is the reptilian characteristic? Feathers on the body It has beak It has teeth It has tail None 41. The mammals have: Right aortic arch Left aortic arch Both right and left None of above None 42. Stigma: Late Devonian Double fertilization Dichotomously branched None 43. The food of Porifera consists of microscopic organisms and organ particles in a percentage ratio of: 10% & 90% respectively 20% & 80% respectively 30% & 70% respectively 40% & 60% respectively None 44. Which of these includes 50,000 living species and is the second largest phylum of invertebrates? Mammals Mantle Metatheria Mollusca None 45. Insects have how many pairs of leg? 9 5 3 7 None 46. Red blood cells of are non-nucleated in: Mammals Amphibians Both A and B None of the above None 47. The giant squid is the largest invertebrate reaching a length of: 13 m 15 m 11 m 17 m None 48. Exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of: Scales Spicules Bones Chitin None 49. In arthropod, nitrogenous waste are in the form of solid: Ammonia Ammonia with water Urea Uric acid None 50. Tape worm completes its life cycle in two hosts, humans and: mosquito Dog Pig/cattle Sheep None 1 out of 10 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-11 Bioenergetics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-11 Bioenergetics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Which of the following processes is not oxidation reduction reactions? Photosynthesis Respiration Photorespiration None of above None 2. Which of the following is electron acceptor during the light reaction of photosynthesis? NAD FAD NADP NADPH None 3. Which of the following is not the wavelength of visible light? 280 nm 380 nm 180 nm 580 nm None 4. Which of the following chlorophylls is present in bacteria? a b c None of the above None 5. Which of the following is the smallest unit? Chlorophyll Phytol Porphyrin ring Pyrrole None 6. How many atoms of oxygen are present in chlorophyll b? 2 4 6 8 None 7. The percentage of photosynthesis in land plants is: 5 % 10 % 15 % 20 % None 8. Photosystem I adsorbs which of the following lights? 600 nm 680 nm 700 nm 720 nm None 9. Which of the following mechanism is involved in the synthesis of ATP? Reduction Oxidation Chemiosmosis None of above None 10. Which of the following is the end product of calvin cycle? Glucose PGA G3P Starch None 11. How much of Glucose is converted into ATP during anaerobic reaction? 1 % 2 % 3 % 4 % None 12. A molecule of ATP releases energy: 6.3 Kcal 7.3 Kcal 8.3 Kcal 9.3 Kcal None 13. Which of the following is the end product of oxidative phase of glycolysis? F-6-P DAP G-6-P PGAL None 14. The number of ATPs produced during transfer of electron from NADH to oxygen is: 1 2 3 4 None 15. Which of the following is the most important factor for photosynthesis Photosynthesis? CO₂ Water Light Oxygen None 16. The source of oxygen during photosynthesis is: Carbon dioxide Water Glucose Light None 17. Which of the followings is maximum absorbed by chlorophyll? Red Green Yellow Blue None 18. The absorption spectrum of light is maximum in the wavelength of: 430 and 670 nm 330 and 660 nm 430 and 690 nm 550 and 580 nm None 19. The photosynthesis carried out by the terrestrial plants is: 5% of the total photosynthesis 10% of the total photosynthesis 15% of the total photosynthesis 20% of the total photosynthesis None 20. Air contains carbon dioxide about: 0.03 to 0.04% 0.02 to 0.03% 0.03 to 0.05% None of the above None 21. Which of the following reaction is included in the oxidative active phase of glycolysis? Glucose + ATP Fructose + ATP PAGL 6NAD None of the above None 22. Co-enzyme Q is in turn oxidized by cytochrome: a₃ a b None 23. Carbon dioxide enters the leaves through: Stroma Cuticle Guard cells Stomata None 24. Thylakoid sacs are stacked in columns called: Double CO₂ Grana ATP None 25. Conventionally 'P' in ATP stands for: ATP molecule 7.3 Kcal energy stored in it Entire phosphate group All these None 26. Visible light range from about 380 to how many nm in wavelength? 755 745 750 760 None 27. Air contains 0.03 - 0.04 percentage of: Oxygen Nitrogen H₂O CO₂ None 28. Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from: Radioactive isotope Water Air Lumen None 29. Water containing O¹⁸: Water Radioactive Photosystem Cyclic electron flow None 30. Photosynthetic pigments are organized into clusters: Lumen Radioactive Water Photosystem None 31. Light behaves as wave as well as particles: Photon 7.3 k.Cal. Mitochondria Pyruvate None 32. Cristae: 7.3 k.Cal. End product of glycolysis Mitochondria Pyruvate None 33. Acetyl-CoA: Mitochondria Photon End product of glycolysis Pyruvate None 34. Daily Rhythmic opening and closing of stomata: Internet clock located in the guard cells Unstacked photosynthetic membrane Muscle cells of humans Laws of thermodynamics None 35. Cytochromes: Unstacked photosynthetic membrane Electron transport intermediate Laws of thermodynamics Muscle cells of humans None 36. Biological energy transformation: Electron transport intermediate Muscle cells of humans Laws of thermodynamics Internal clock located in the guard cells None 37. Photosynthetic prokaryotes: Muscle cells of humans Internal clock located in the guard cells End product of glycolysis Unstacked photosynthetic membrane None 38. Break down of terminal phosphate of ATP: Pyruvate End productive of glycolysis 7.3 k.Cal Photon None 39. Pyruvic acid: Radioactive Mitochondria Photon End product of glycolysis None 40. Which is a kind of chemical link between catabolism and anabolism? Double ATP CO₂ Grana None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-12 Nutrition Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-12 Nutrition" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Which of the following is not used for replenishment of minerals? Sewage sludge Fertilizers Green manure None of above None 2. The deficiency of which of the following elements causes chlorosis? Nitrogen Phosphorus Potassium Magnesium None 3. The association of fungi and root of higher plants is called: Saprophytic Parasite Mycorrhizae Lichens None 4. Which of the following groups have large premolar and molar teeth: Detritivores Herbivores Carnivores Omnivores None 5. Which of the followings is not a Macrophagus feeder? Hydra Snail Cat fish Dog fish None 6. In which process of digestion, utilization of digested food take place? Ingestion Digestion Absorption Assimilation None 7. Absorption of food in planarian takes place by: Pharynx Mouth Intestine Intestinal caecae None 8. Which of the following functions is irrelevant to oral cavity? Grinding Lubrication Absorption Digestion None 9. The opening of the glottis is called: Glottis Epiglottis Larynx Vocal chords None 10. Vomiting is caused by: Peristalsis Antiperistalsis Hunger Pang Swallowing None 11. The ph of fresh HCI is: 1 3 4 5 None 12. The length of Duodenum in cm is: 20-25 30-35 10-15 40-50 None 13. Which of the following enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice? Amylase Erypsin Lipase Trypsin None 14. The hormone secretin stimulates the secretion of: Gastric juice Pancreatic juice None of above Intestinal juice None 15. In intestine, amino acids are absorbed by: Capillary Epithelium Lacteal None of above None 16. Most of the water in the digestive tract is absorbed in: Pharynx Stomach Small intestine Large intestine None 17. The condition with abnormal amount of fats is called: Anorexia Obesity Bulima Piles None 18. Nutrition is the process which involves: Selection of different types of food Analysis of different types of food Intake and utilization of food Breakdown food during respiration None 19. Nitrogen is present in: Carbohydrates Protein Nucleic acid Lipids None 20. Which of the followings is a parasitic mode of nutrition? One Organism gets food from the other One Organism gets protection from the other One Organism causes disease in the other All the above None 21. The bacteria in nodules of leguminous plants produce nitrates by: Decomposition of dead Organism Fixing atmospheric nitrogen Releasing nitrogen from the soil None of the above None 22. Rodents are: Herbivore Detritivores Carnivore Omnivore None 23. Which of the following is the characteristic of carnivores? They have large incisors but small canines They have small incisors but large canines They have large incisors and canines They have small incisors but without canines None 24. Which of the followings is fluid filter? Earthworm Sheep Whale Fish None 25. Intracellular is type of digestion which takes place: Outside the cell and outside the body Outside the cell but within the coelomic cavity Outside the cell but within the digestive cavity Inside the cell but outside the digestive cavity None 26. Which of the following is correct about the sac like digestive system? A system having single opening called mouth for ingestion A system having single opening called mouth for egestion A system having single opening both for ingestion and egestion None of above None 27. The function of the crop of the cockroach is to: Ingest the food Grind the food Store the food Digest the food None 28. The function of sodium bicarbonate is to: Digest the food Stabilize the pH Transport the food Break the food None 29. The hunger pang is caused due to: Empty stomach Low glucose level in the body Secretation of gastric juice None of the above None 30. Heart burn is caused due to: Pain in heart Pain in stomach Out flow of gastric juice None of above None 31. Bile contains which of these enzyme? Amylase Lipase Trypsin None of above None 32. The length of the Jejunum is about: 1.5 metres 2.4 metres 3.4 metres None of above None 33. Some humans consume milk and develop diarrhea due to: Milk proteins Glycogen in milk Lactose in milk None of the above None 34. The bacteria in large intestine produce: Vitamin A Vitamin B Vitamin D Vitamin K None 35. The animals having structurally and functionally intermediate teeth between herbivores and carnivores are: Omnivores Saprozoic Detritivores Insectivores None 36. The sac- like digestive system is: Deficient More efficient Coefficient Less efficient None 37. HCI adjusts pH of stomach ranging from: 2 - 3 4 - 5 2 - 4 3 - 5 None 38. The breakdown of complex organic food into diffusible molecules by the action of enzymes is called: Detritivores Ingestion Digestion Both B and C None 39. The mode of digestion in amoeba is: Intracellular Assimilation Lysosomes Coelenteron None 40. Earth worm: Prevent the insects from climbing out Photosynthesis A row of long stiff bristles Detritus feeder None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-13 Gaseous Exchange Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-13 Gaseous Exchange" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. In which of the following processes ATP is produced? Breathing Ventilation Organismic respiration Cellular respiration None 2. Number of stomata per square centimeter of a leaf are: 10,000 12,000 14,000 16,000 None 3. The percentage of rubisco in the leave is: 10% 20% 30% 40% None 4. Number of ATP produced during photorespiration is: 36 26 16 None of the above None 5. Which of the following structures is not involved for the absorption of oxygen in cockroach? Tracheae Skin Spiracles Tracheoles None 6. Which of the following special structure is present in the respiratory system of man? Bronchi Parabronchi Alveoli None 7. The sheet of skeletal muscle between abdominal and thoracic cavity is called: Pleura Diaphragm Air sac Alveoli None 8. The maximum capacity of 100 ml blood to absorb oxygen is: 10 ml 20 ml 30 ml 40 ml None 9. The carbon dioxide transported in the form of carbonate ions is called: 30% 50% 70% 90% None 10. The amount of oxygen in exhaled air is: 12% 14% 16% 18% None 11. The total lung capacity is: 3 liters 5 liters 7 litres 9 liters None 12. Which step does not take place during cellular respiration? Exchange of gasses Breakdown of glucose Formation of glucose Release of energy None 13. Photorespiration is an activity which: Takes place in the presence of light Takes place in dark Can take place both in light and dark None of the above None 14. In which of the following, reactions of photo respiration do not take place? Chloroplast Mitochondria Peroxisome Cytoplasm None 15. Which of the following is not property of respiratory surface of hydra: Large surface and moisture Thick epithelium Gradient of gasses Capillary network None 16. The gasses are transported in cockroach through: Blood Trachea Spiracles None of above None 17. Which type of respiration takes place through skin in frog? Cutaneous respiration Buccal respiration Pulmonary respiration None of the above None 18. The respiratory system of the bird is more efficient than the mammals because: It have air sacs It has one way flow of gasses It does not have alveoli It has countercurrent flaw None 19. Which of the following structure is present in birds but absent in mammals? Lung Trachea Bronchi Parabronchi None 20. Which of the following processes does not take place during expiration? The intercostals muscles are relaxed The ribs are relaxed The muscles of the diaphram relaxed The lungs are also relaxed None 21. The maximum capacity of haemoglobin to absorb oxygen is: 19.6 ml / 100 ml blood 20 ml / 100 ml blood 22 ml / 100 ml of blood 25 ml / 100 ml blood None 22. The oxygen pressure in many of the cells is: 40 mm Hg 50 mm Hg 60 mm Hg None of the above None 23. An inflammatory substance released during the attack of asthma is: Interferon Compliment proteins Histamine Acetylcholine None 24. Water is denser than air: 8000 time 800 times 80,000 times 1800 times None 25. The main tracheal trunk in cockroach communicates with exterior by: 8 pairs 4 pairs 10 paris 100 pairs None 26. The normal human blood is about: 02 ml / 100 ml of blood 200 ml / 100 ml of blood 20 ml / 100 ml of blood 19.6 ml / 100 ml of blood None 27. Oxygen content of fresh air is about: 200 ml /lit 100 ml/lit 300 ml/lit 400 ml/lit None 28. Oxygen combines to haemoglobin with form: Respiratory Oxygen Oxyhemoglobin Organ None 29. From the spiracles air enters into trachea and then: Bronchiolar Tracheoles Both A and B None of the above None 30. Normally at rest we inhale and exhale how many times per minute? 16 - 22 18 - 25 15 - 20 20 - 30 None 31. Cancer is basically malignant tumor: Muscle fiber 20% Sheet skeletal muscle Corncinoma None 32. What percentage of carbon dioxide is carried as carboxy haemoglobin? 15% 10% 20% 12% None 33. Diffusion of oxygen in and carbon dioxide out occurs when: The muscles of the ribs are contracted The muscles of the ribs are relaxed Both A and B Difference in partial pressure of the gasses None 34. In the glottis the mucous membrane is stretched across into fibrous bands: The muscles of the ribs are contracted The muscles of the ribs are relaxed Voccal cords Difference in partial pressure of gasses None 35. Number of stomata present on the leaves: Air existing in the spaces between the soil particles Lungs in the land vertebrates Bronchioles are obstructed as a result of inflammation 12,000 per square centimeters of leaf in Tobacco plant mera Ki karni None 36. Carbon dioxide: Cetaceans Regulator of normal alveolar Stores some oxygen Mycobacterium None 37. 70% carbondioxide: Regulator of normal alveolar Stores some oxygen Cetaceans Carried as bicarbonate ions None 38. The roots of the land plants get oxygen: Air existing in the space between the soil particles Lungs in the land vertebrates Air sac 12000 per square centimeters of leaf in tobacco plant None 39. Their functional unit of the lungs: Bronchioles Lungs in the land vertebrates Air existing in the spaces between the soil particles Air sac None 40. In the glottis the mucous membrane is stretched across in to the fibrous bands: The muscles of the ribs are contacted The muscles of the ribs are relaxed Voccal cords Difference in partial pressure of the gases None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-14 Transport Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-14 Transport" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The movement of minerals or water through extracellular pathway is called: Symplast Apoplast Vascular None of the above None 2. The total kinetic energy of the water molecules is called: Water potential Pressure potential Osmotic potential None of the above None 3. The attraction between the water molecules and cell wall of xylem is called: Cohesion Tension Adhesion None of the above None 4. The evaporation of water from the aerial parts of the plants is called: Ascent of sap Plasmolysis Deplasmolysis None 5. The absorption of water by a compound without dissolving in it is called: Ascent of sap Plasmolysis Imbibition Guttation None 6. starch sugar hypothesis was proposed by: Dixon Mohi Sanger Derbs None 7. Which of the following elements has role in the opening and closing of Stomata: K Mg Cu Fe None 8. The stomata are closed at temperature [in centigrade]: 35 45 25 15 None 9. Which of the followings cannot become sink during translocation? Root Fruits Stem Leaves None 10. Which of the following is irrelevant for the circulatory system of cockroach? Heart Ventral Blood vessel Aorta Dorsal blood vessel None 11. Which of the followings is irrelevant for the heart of amphibians? Right auricle Truncus arteriosus Right ventricle Sinus venosus None 12. The pH of blood is: 6.4 7 7.4 8.4 None 13. Which of the following is mismatched in the following about RBC? Haemoglobin Bone Marrow Transport of oxygen Fibrinogen None 14. Which of the following compounds destroyed the nucleic acid of the invading Organism? Fibrinogen Interferon Heparin Histamine None 15. The chemical which maintain the acid base concentration is: Buffer Homeostasis Osmoregulation None of the above None 16. Match semi lunar valve with the one of the following: Right auricle Right ventricle Pulmonary trunk Left auricle None 17. Which of the following is the largest artery? Coronary Aorta lliac Vena cava None 18. Which of the followings brings blood from liver? Renal vein Hepatic portal Hepatic vein Hepatic artery None 19. Which of the followings is not present in the wall of artery? Artery Vein Capillary Heart None 20. The exchange of material takes place through: Artery Vein Capillary Heart None 21. The discharge of blood from blood vessels is called: Stroke Oedma Hypertension Hasmorrhage None 22. Which of the followings is used in active immunity? Antibody Vaccine Antisera Antigen None 23. Which of the following processes is not involved in transport of materials within the body of plants: Respiration Transportation Photosynthesis Reproduction None 24. The casparian strips are special structures which are present in the endodermis. These are used to: Make the movement material fast through the endodermis Make the movement of material slow through the endodermis Block the movement of materials through the endodermis None of the above None 25. The salute potential of a cell = -2000, its pressure potential = 1300, then its water Solute potential will be: -3300 -700 700 3300 None 26. The force of attraction between the water molecule and tracheid water are: Adhesive forces Cohesive forces Tensile forces Electrostatic forces None 27. Guttation is a process in which: Water is lost from the Stomata Water is lost from the lenticels Water is lost from secreting glands Water is lost from root None 28. Which of the pressure is responsible for the process of bleeding? Osmotic pressure Solute pressure Hydrostatic pressure Tensile pressure None 29. Which of the following is not the importance of transpiration? Ascent of sap Transport of minerals Exchange of gasses Cooling of plants None 30. The average of the sugar movement in the phloem is: 1 meter per hour 2 meters per hour 3 meter per hour 4 meter per hour None 31. Which of the following animals has close circulatory system? Hydra Snail House fly Earth worm None 32. The closed circulatory system is more efficient than the open circulatory system because it shows: Rapid movement in body Rapid exchange of material It does not come in contact Economy of blood None 33. The number of chambers in the heart of the Mammals is: two Three Four Five None 34. There is separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods in birds and mammals because: The ventricles are completely divided The Ventral aorta is divided into aortic and pulmonary trunk The aortic arch is divided into two systemic arches None of the above None 35. The percentage of inorganic salts and ions in the plasma is: 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 None 36. Which of the following substances is not present in the plasma of blood? CO₂ Oxygen Urea Proteins None 37. A cubic millimeter blood of male contains RBC: 5-5¹/² million 4-4 ¹/²million 3-4 million None of the above None 38. Which of the following processes is a homeostasis? To maintain the amount of water constant in the blood To maintain the functioning of the body To maintain the process of respiration To maintain the muscular activity None 39. Which of the following is characteristic of the oedema? Release of fluid from the body Presence of excessive fluid in the tissues Presence of excessive proteins in the body All of the above None 40. Which of the following layers of heart has a intercalated discs? Epicardium Myocardium Endocardium None of the above None 41. In which of the following veins collects blood from the digestive system and supply blood to liver? Hepatic vein Hepatic portal vein Renal vein None of the above None 42. The heart of man contracts during his life for: 1.5 million 2.5 million 3.5 million 4.5 million None 43. Which of the following materials is not present in the interstitial flood? Water Salts Fats Blood cells None 44. The systolic pressure of the heart is: 80 mm Hg 100 mm Hg 110 mm Hg 120 mm Hg None 45. Which of the following conditions is helpful in the prevention of heart attack? Avoid too much fatty food rich in cholesterol Maintain normal body weight Control the blood pressure by regular walk and exercise All of the above None 46. What is caused as a result of uncontrolled production of white blood cells? Blood clotting Leucaemia Imbibition Isobilateral None 47. At night when the stomata are almost closed, through what transpiration takes place in plants? Cuticular Respiration Water Solute None 48. About what % of total water polluted up in the leaves is used by the plants in various activities including photosynthesis? 1 3 2 4 None 49. The total water potential is sum of pressure potential and: Xylem Solute potential Dixon One None 50. The passive and active uptake of minerals by root cells involve the use of energy in the form of: ATP Active Anchor Sloute None 1 out of 10 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-15 Homeostasis Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-15 Homeostasis" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The excretory system of Planaria called: Metanephridium Protonephridium Nephrone Nephridium None 2. In urea cycle, one molecule of Amonia and one molecule of co2>/sub> combine with one molecule of ornithine to form: Urea Arginine Arginosuccinate Citrulline None 3. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs found in: Vertebrate Annelids Insects Flatworms None 4. The vertebrate liver function in all the following regulatory processes except: Detoxification of harmful chemicals Energy reserves in the formation of a glycogen Production of nitrogenous waste Osmoregulation by variable excretion of salts None 5. Urea can be eliminated with quantity of water as compared to ammonia: 1/10 1/20 1/5 1/50 None 6. Movement ground squirrel to burrows in midday heart is an: Physiological adaptation Structural adaptation Behavioral adaptation Morphological and physiological adaptations None 7. Humming bird belongs to a category called: Heterothem Poikilotherms Ectothem Endotherm None 8. Reptile: Protein Ectotherm Nucleic acid ADH None 9. Dialyzer: 15% Kidney machine Adrenal cortex Presence of sweat gland None 10. Nephron: Passive loss of water from gills Kidney Large amount of hypotonic contain little salt Body fluid isotonic to external environment None 11. Bile: Liver Body fluid isotonic to external environment Kidney Large amount of hypotonic urine contain little salt None 12. Uric acid: Cockroach Loop of Henle Bowman capsule Hypothalamus None 13. Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a constant environment despite conditions: External internal Internal external Both A and B None of these None 14. Which of the following activity is regulated by homeostasis? Temperature Water balance Blood sugar level All A,B and C None 15. A cell is placed in a solution and swells. This solution is: Isotonic to cell Hypertonic to cell Hypotonic to cell None of these None 16. A cell whose internal salt concentration is 0.3 per liter is placed in a solution having salt concentration 0.5 per liter. The solution is: Isotonic to the cell Hypotonic to the cell Hypertonic to cell None of these None 17. Plasmolysis of a human red blood cell would occur if the cell were: In an isotonic solution In a hypertonic solution In a hypotonic solution None of the above None 18. The tendency of a solution to take up water when separated from pure water by a selectively permeable membrane is called: Osmotic pressure Turgor pressure Diffusion Pressure deficit Water potential None 19. The entry of water from salty soil into roots of halophytes takes place because the root of halophytes develop: High water potential Low osmotic pressure Low water potential All of these None 20. Animals that are not isotonic with their environment and have developed mechanisms to regulate their internal salute and water concentrations are: Osmoconformers Osmoregulators Thermoregulators Both A and B None 21. An increase in blood sugar level triggers the release of the hormone in the pancreas the hormone insulin b the pancreas, the hormone insulin lowers blood sugar level restoring the body to its original blood glucose level by converting glucose to glycogen. This is an example of: Positive feed back Negative feed back Homeostatic imbalance None of these None 22. To hags fishes, sea water is: Isotonic Hypotonic Hypertonic None of these None 23. Which one of the following has medium toxicity? Ammonia Urea Uric acid Water None 24. The internal opening of the metanephridium is known as: Nephrostoms Nephridiopore Excretory Pore All A,B and C None 25. In humans, excess nitrogen is eliminated from the body by mainly converting it to: Urea Uric acid Ammonia Amine phosphate None 26. From the distal convoluted tubule, filtrate will be carried to the: Renal Corpuscle Collecting duct Nephron loop Proximal convoluted tubule None 27. Hormone regulates the transfer of sodium from the nephron to the blood: Parathormone Anti-diuretic Aldosterone Vasopression None 28. Separation of amino acid into amino and carboxyl group is known as: Animation Excretion Deamination Egestion None 29. Which of the following is not structure of kidney: Cortex Medulla Pelvis Urethra None 30. Mammals maintain their body temperature within a range of: 25 ⁰C to 35 ⁰C 30 ⁰C to 40 ⁰C 36 ⁰C to 43 ⁰C 36 ⁰C to 38 ⁰C None 31. These are animals capable of varying degrees of endothermic heat production, but they generally do not regulate body temperature within as narrow a range as endotherms: Ectotherms Poikilotherms Hearotherms None of these None 32. Dialysis cleans the blood by: An artificial kidney Filtering it within abdomen Removing glucose from blood Both A and B None 33. Percentage of kidney stones composed of calcium oxalate phosphate: 5% 20% 70% 90% None 34. It is a cyclic process of in the enzymatic reactions which operates in the liver cells as a result of which urea is formed from ammonia, carbondioxide NH₂ group: Ornithine cycle Citruline cycle Arginine cycle All of these None 35. Ph of human urine is: 7.4 3.5 5.00 8.00 None 36. Daily urine output of man is: 1-2 liters 1-3 liters 1-4 liters 1-5 liters None 37. The number of nephrons in ONE kidney of man is: 4 million 2 million 8 million 1 million None 38. Cholesterol is excreted in the: Sebum Bile Sweat Both A and B None 39. About % of kidney stones composed of uric acid: 5% 20% 70% 90% None 40. Birds maintain their body temperature within a range of: 25⁰C to 35⁰C 30⁰C to 40⁰C 41⁰C to 43⁰C 36⁰C to 38⁰C None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-16 Support & Movement Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-16 Support & Movement" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The whole body of Bryophyte is made up of: Collenchyma cells Sclerenchyma cells Parenchyma cells Airenchyma cells None 2. The unspecialized packing tissue found in epidermis, cortex and pith is: Parenchyma Collenchyma Sclerenchyma Cork cambium None 3. The portion of the Xylem that is conducting water and minerals and has not started storing waste products is: Sap wood Heart wood Central wood Both A and C None 4. What is directional movement response that occur in response to a directional stimulus is called? Nutation Tropism Both A and B Turgor movement None 5. The growth of pollen tube always towards the ovules, is due to: Geotropism Thigmotropism Phototropism Chemotropism None 6. The periodic shedding of exoskeleton in arthropods is known as: Moulting Ecdysis Both A and B Stridulation None 7. Total number of ribs in your axial skeleton is: 12 24 33 26 None 8. The visible number of vertebrae in human vertebral column is: 12 24 33 26 None 9. In human back bone the caudal vertebrae are reduced to 4 in number and are fused to form the: Sacrum Innominatum Coccyx Ischium None 10. The intervertebral disks which absorbs Shock can assist in limited movement of disks: Collagen fibers Osteonectin Cartilage All A,B and C None 11. The shoulder gridle consists of two bones: Humerus and scapula Humerus and ulna Clavicle and scapula IIium and Ischium None 12. The joint found between the flat bones of the skull is classified as: Immovable Moveable Slightly movable None of these None 13. The main protein in the matrix of cartilage is: Collagen Osteonectin Keratin Actin None 14. The total number of bones in your right arm is: 30 32 35 60 None 15. In which skeletal deformity pain is felt in the lower back, buttock, and /or various parts of the leg and foot: Sciatica Osteoporosis Arthritis All of these None 16. The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is: Smooth Skeletal Intercalated Cardiac None 17. Muscle that straighten two bones at joints are called extensors. What is the name for muscles that cause two bones to bend at joints? Protractors Flexors Adductors Abductors None 18. The loss of bone density which can causes bones to become light, brittle and easily broken is called: Spondylosis Artritis Sciatica Osteoporosis None 19. The proteins at the junction between sarcomeres from the: H zone M line Z line A band None 20. Within a sarcomere how many thin filament are arrayed around each thick filament: 4 6 2 8 None 21. Human eye muscles contract in: 0.01 seconds 0.05 seconds 0.08 seconds All option are incorrect None 22. A muscle which moves the body part towards the mid line of the body is: Flexor muscle Extensor muscle Adductor muscle Abductor muscle None 23. The state of psychological inability of a muscle to contract due to accumulation of lactic acid is referred to as: Rigor mortis Muscle fatigue Muscle tetany Muscle cramp None 24. Select the correct combination for diagram below: 'A' Myosin, 'B' Actin, 'C' H-zone 'A' Myosin, 'B' Actin, 'C' M-lines 'A' Actin, 'B' Myosin, 'C' Z-lines 'A' Troponin, 'B' Tropomycin, 'C' Z-lines None 25. How many bones are there on the average in human body? 33 206 639 It varies by the individual None 26. What is the difference between cartilage and bone: Bone is rubbery, and cartilage is firm Cartilage is rubbery, and Bones is firm Bon is more primitive tissue than cartilage Born is inside the body and cartilage is outside None 27. What is the difference between compact bone and spongy bone? They have different bone marrow They are made of different materials They have different sizes of bone cells They have different arrangement of body cells None 28. The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain this muscle tissue: Striated Skeletal Cardiac Smooth None 29. Approximately what percentage of body heart is generated by muscle tissue? 15% 30% 55% 85% None 30. Which of the following does not occur in a muscle during contraction? Thick and thin filament bind to each other Muscle fibers stretch Thick and thin filaments slide past each other Muscle fibers shorten None 31. When an action potential reach the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron then: Calcium is released inside the muscle fiber Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft Acetylcholinesterease is released into the cinepatic left Physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber occurs None 32. The inactive non- conducting word is called: Callus Heart wood Cork Sapwood None 33. For muscle contraction, ATP requirement is met by: Anaerobic breakdown for fructose into lactic acid Anaerobic breakdown of glucose into lactic acid Aerobic breakdown of fructose into lactic acid Aerobic breakdown of glucose into lactic acid None 34. In birds, sternum is modified to form keel, which is needed for: Attachment of muscle Attachment of organs Attachment of appendages None of above None 35. Which of the following are digitigrades? Monkey and apes Deer and goat Man and monkey Rabbit and rodents None 36. The most swift type of locomotion is shown by: Unguligrades Digitigrade Plantigrades All of above None 37. Resistance to decay an insect attack to plants is provided by: Sap wood Callus Cork Heartwood None 38. Presence of protoplasts, elastic in nature, without secondary wall have angular thickening in primary wall are characteristics of: Vascular cambium cells Collenchyma cells Sclerenchyma cells Xylem cells None 39. Long cylindrical and bundle caps of Xylem: Cambium tracheids Sclerides Trachea None 40. Movement of sperms of liver worts, mosses and ferns: Epinasty Chemotactic Haptonastic Turgor movement None 41. Axial skeleton: Cardiac muscles Pectoral and pelvic girdle and appendages Scapula, supra scapula and clavicle Skull, vertebrae and sternum None 42. Accordion movement: Earthworm Antagonistic muscle pair Starfish Jelly fish None 43. Lever movement: Starfish Antagonistic muscle pair Sarcoplasmic Earthworm None 44. Sliding filament model: Lock jaw Endoskeleton A.F Huxley Amoeba None 45. Tetanus: A.F Huxley Endoskeleton Lock jaw Amoeba None 1 out of 9 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-17 Coordination & Control Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-17 Coordination & Control" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. A cell or a group of cells specialized to detect chains in the environment and trigger impulses are known as: Effectors Receptors Suppressors Both B and C None 2. You dunk your head when a baseball is thrown toward your face as. You are responding to: An internal stimulus An external stimulus Hormones All of these None 3. If bio-rhythm occurs with a frequency of 24 hours, it is called: Cireadian rhythum Ccirea- annual rhythm Lunar rhythm All of choices are correct None 4. The influence of daily cycle of light and darkness on the Physiology and behaviour of an Organism is known as: Mechanical rhythm Chemoperiodism Photoperiodism Thigmotropism None 5. Cireadian rhythms are based on approximately a: 2 hour period 7 day period 24-hour period 365-day period None 6. Which of the following describes a plant response to heat stress: Production of heat shock proteins Closing of Stomata Production of abscisic acid Production of fructants None 7. In combination with auxin, it stimulates cells division in plants and determines the course of differentiation: Ethylene Gibberellins Abscisic acid Cytokinin None 8. IAA,NAA and GA are: International seed companies Plant pheromones Spray adjuvants Plant hormones None 9. Neurons which make up the nervous system, consist of: An axon 2 or more dendrites A cell body containing a nucleus All A,B and C None 10. Who connect different neurons together, send information between neurons. Through short dendrites and short axons? Sensory neurons Motor neurons Interneurons Neuroglia None 11. The very small gap between an axon sending a message and dendrite receiving the message is the: Axon Terminal Receptor Synapse Effector None 12. The neurons of CNS that form myelin sheath, provide nutrition and are involved in phagocytic activity are known as: Sensory neurons Mortar neurons Interneurons Neuroglia None 13. Which of the ions are most abundant on the inside and outside of the neuron add its resting potential? Potassium; sodium Sodium; potassium Calcium; phosphate Sulphate; potassium None 14. Influx of which iron causes depolarization of the membrane, as the first phase of the action potential? K⁺ Na⁺ K⁺ and Na⁺ Ca⁺ None 15. How many interneurons does the CNS contain approximately? 1 trillion 100 trillion 1 million 100 billion None 16. Which part of the brain is the seat of conscious activities? Limbic brain Brain stem Cerebral cortex Occipital None 17. When your finger accidentally gets caught in a door, the pain message is sent to your brain through: Mediola Oblongata Motor neuron Sensory receptors Caffeine None 18. In which portion of the spinal cord do the interneurons lie? Cervical enlargement Lumbar enlargement Gray matter White matter None 19. Which structures would not be innervated by the sympathetic nervous system? Skeletal muscles Glands Smooth muscles Cardiac muscles None 20. The centers for thermoregulation, osmoregulation are located in: Thalamus Hypothalamus Amygdala Hippoccampus None 21. Peripheral nervous system in man consists of: 31 spinal and 12 cranial nerve pairs 33 spinal and 12 cranial nerve pairs 12 spinal and 31 cranial nerve pairs 31 spinal and 31 cranial nerve pairs None 22. What kind of meissner corpuscle and pacinian corpuscle are the skin receptors? Free nerve Hot Cold Encapsulated nerve ending None 23. Nicotine: Reduces fatigue Raises blood pressure Increases alertness All of the choices are correct None 24. Calcium is released from born into the bloodstream due to the action of: ADH GinRH LH PTH None 25. This hormone would be at an increased level in a mother who is breast feeding: Thyroxine Prolactin Aldosterone Insulin None 26. As the sun comes up in the morning your blood level of what goes down and you wake up: Melatonin Cortisol Glucagon Adrenalin None 27. This hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary: STHRRH TRH CRH ACTH None 28. Hormones that enter target cells and bind to receptors in the cytoplasm and then enter the nucleus are called: Steroid hormones Water soluble hormones Peptide hormones 2nd messengers None 29. A 30 years old male male complains of being over weight, sluggish in nature, hair loss, dry skin and intolerance of cold, he is suffering from: Cretinism Myxedema Addison disease Huntington disease None 30. A 'Skinner box' is used for experiments in: Operant conditioning Classical conditioning Migration Aggression None 31. A rat in a box learns to associate pressing a lever with obtaining food: Operant cconditioning Classical conditioning Imprinting Aggression None 32. Fixed Action Pattern [FAP] is stereotype behavior that is triggered by an external sensory stimulus as: Response chain Endogenous releaser Sign stimulus All A,B and C None 33. Which of the following is not a function of auxins? Promote stomatal opening Promote apical dominance and fruit growth Promote cell division in cambium Cause delay in leaf senescence None 34. Which of the following ions present in the nerve cells and surrounding fluid are the most important in conduction of nerve impulse? Na⁺ and K⁺ᵐ Na⁺ and Mg⁺⁺ K+ and Mg⁺⁺ Mg⁺⁺ and Ca⁺⁺ None 35. Excessive secretion of somatotrophin releasing factor during early life leads to: Grave disease Epilepsy Alzheimer disease Acromegaly None 36. Insulin depresses blood glucose levels by: Increasing glycogen synthesis Increasing cell utilization of glucose Both A and B Stimulating conversion of glucose into lipids and proteins None 37. Who performed the experiment of conditioning the dogs to a secrete saliva on ringing of bells? Kphler Uexkull Pavlov Lorenz None 38. Mid-brain: 12 pairs Auditory Relay Centre Planaria Hydra None 39. Gastrin: Water retension by kidneys Sugar in urine Stomach Kinesis None 40. Reflex action: Milk production Muscles Follicle development Involuntary None 41. The path along which the olfactory receptors send their electrical message to the brain: Inhibitory signals Olfactory tract Receptor sites Taste buds None 42. The most basic function of the nervous system is: Stimulation Reception Conduction Inhibition None 43. Which of the following is most fundamental in the diverse function of every part of the entire nervous system? Peripheral nervous system Afferent Efferent Nervous impulse None 44. A neuron with its dendrites connected to another neuron and its Axon connected to an effector organ is: Sensory Motor Association Sympathetic None 45. A neuron with one axon and 25 dendrites would be: Unipolar Bipolar In the central nervous system only Multipolar None 46. The nervous system is involved in which of the following: Reception Secretion Stimulation All of the above None 47. A central nervous system neuron whose dendrite is connected with a higher part of the brain or spinal cord, and whose Axon is connected with a lower area is termed: Sensory Motor Afferent Sympathetic None 48. A central nervous neuron whose dendrites are connected with a sensory neuron and whose axon is connected with a motor neuron is termed: Sensory Motor Association Auxiliary None 49. Choose the pair of hormones that have antagonistic effects on blood sugar levels: Calcitonin and PTH Adrenalin and glucagon Glucagon and glucose ADH and aldosterone None 50. Excessive production of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland: Is called hypothyroidism Can cause nervousness, irregular heartbeat and weight loss Can cause stunted growth and retardation in children Can cause a goiter None 1 out of 10 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-18 Reproduction Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-18 Reproduction" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. What is the advantage of sexual reproduction? Genetically varied individuals are born Chances of survival increases Chances of evolution increases All A,B and C None 2. A single mushroom may produce how many spores per minute at the peak of its reproduction? 500,000 50,000 80,000 200,000 None 3. Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that it does not require: 1 parent 2 parent Spores Vegetative parts None 4. The mass of dividing undifferentiated cells of the cut end of the shoot is called: Callus Periblem Dermatogen Pericycle None 5. A type of sygnamy in which both fusing gametes are flagellated and same in the size are known as: Isogamy Ansogamy Oogamy All of the choices are correct None 6. In gymnosperms male gametophyte consists of: Archegonia Megaspore mother cell Pollen tube Ovule None 7. If someone gives you a plant and tells you that it is an angiosperm, you know that during its life cycle it will produce? Swimming sperm A prothallus Flowers Cones None 8. Which one of the following is the male reproductive part of a flower? Stamen Sepal Petal Pistils None 9. The stamens are leaves modified for the production of: Microspores Megaspores Ovules Seed None 10. The unisexual flowers are called: Staminate Carpellate Both A and B Monoecious None 11. In angiosperms, double fertilization produces two distinct portions of the seed. The endosperm portion's role is to: Develop into the embryo Nourish the embryo Develop into the mature sperm Serves as a reservoir for extra DNA None 12. Which part ultimately matures into a fruit? Integument Ovary Archegonium Ovule None 13. In planst, spores are formed by 1, whereas gametes are formed by 2: 1- meiosis, 2- mitosis 1-fission, 2-fusion 1- meiosis, 2-meiosis 1-mitosis, 2-mitosis None 14. It is defined as a cluster of flowers, arising from the main stem axis of penduncle: Inflorescence Phosphorescence Luminescence Senescence None 15. The type of recemose inflorescence with a short axis and multiple floral pedicels of equal length that appear to arise from a common point is called: Corymb Umbel Raceme Spike None 16. What is required? Water Suitable temperature Both A and B None of these None 17. Promotion flowering by cold treatment given to imbibed seeds or young plants is known as: Parthenocarpy Parthenogenesis Apomixis Vernalization None 18. Phytochrome exists in two forms i.e, P660 and: P307 P370 P703 P730 None 19. A form of asexual reproduction in which new individual grows out as a small out growth and eventually separates from parent body is called: Forming a spore Budding Regeneration Fission None 20. The technique of producing a genetically identical copy of an Organism by replacing the nucleus of an unfertilized with the nucleus of a body cell from the Organism is: Budding Cloning Parthenocarpy Fission None 21. The animals which lay eggs are called: Oviparous Viviparous Dioecious Neuter None 22. In mammalian mails, the reproductive and excretory system share the same: Ureter Vasdefrens Urinary bladder Urethra None 23. Human tests are packed with about how many seminiferous tubules which produce about how many millions sperms every day? 200,20 300,40 500,30 500,10 None 24. A human female has around how many oocytes in each of her ovary? 30,000 200,000 300,000 20,000 None 25. What event occurs in the menstrual cycle when the level of progesterone declines? Ovulation Beginning of menses Formation of corpus luteum Maturation of ovarian follicle None 26. Menopause in females comes at the age of: 30 to 40 years 45 to 50 years 60 to 65 years 70 years None 27. What followings is the egg is not fertilized? menstruation Pregnancy Implantation All A,B and C None 28. This hormone would be at an increased level in a mother who is breast feeding: Thyroxine Prolactin Aldoserone insulin None 29. During female fertile years, about how many oocytes develop into mature eggs? 20,000 250,000 300,000 450 None 30. The male reproductive organ is the: Penis Testis Ovary All None 31. The penis becomes erect because: Spongy tissues inside it fills with blood There is a hinge joint between the pelvic bone and penile bone It fills with urine or sperm None of the above None 32. Sterilisation in males is called as: Tubectomy Vasectomy JVF GIFT None 33. Pollen tube contains: One male nucleus Two male nuclei Three male nuclei For male nuclei None 34. The first time that the monthly bleeding occurs is called: Maturity Menarche Menopause Puberty None 35. The most important part of the plant for continuation of the life of the species is: Stem Root Flower Leaf None 36. Unequal daughter cells are produced by: Fragmentation Sporulation Fission Budding None 37. The life span of the sperm is: 2 days 1-3 days 1-3 weeks 7 days None 38. Which of the following is a gland of endocrine system? Sweat gland Tear gland Pituitary gland All of the above None 39. One way the endocrine system helps maintain homeostasis is by having: Each gland secret only one hormone Two hormones with opposite effects regulate certain things Only steroid hormones regulate important functions The pituitary gland regulate all the other glands None 40. Puberty usually begins between the ages of: 5 and 8 9 and 15 16 and 19 20 and 25 None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-19 Growth & Development Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-19 Growth & Development" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. During elongation the cell volume increases up to 150 times due to uptake of: Food Minerals Water Air None 2. What causes apical dominance by diffusing from the apical bud which inhibits the growth of lateral buds? Food Minerals Water Auxin None 3. At the cephalic end of primitive streak, closely packed cells from a local thickening known as: Splanchnic mesoderm Somatic mesoderm Hensen's node Gastrocoele None 4. Zygote which animal spemann divided into two equal halves with the help of minute ligature of human hair? Salamander Frog Fish Sheep None 5. This alga has a long stalk with an umbrella shaped cap at its top and rhizoids, attached to the ground: Acetabularia Spirogyra Euglena Chlamydomonas None 6. From how many celled embryo did spemann observed, that if a single cell is separated, it contains a complete set of genes and forms a complete embryo? 8 12 20 16 None 7. The human life span is judged to be maximum of: 150 years 60 years 90 years 120 - 125 years None 8. This is the condition in which one of the sex chromosome is missing: Klinefelter's syndrome Turner's syndrome Trisomy Mutation None 9. 25-30⁰C: Optimum temperature for growth Secondary growth Apical meristems Photoperiodism None 10. Neurula: Body organs formed, cells interact and differentiate Blastocoele formed Folding of neural plate visible Translucent appearance in Blastoderm None 11. Thimann and Skoog: 22ⁿᵈ day Apical dominance 21ˢᵗ day Gives to muscle cells None 12. Which of the following is irrelevant for growth and development? Cell division Cell elongation Differentiation All of the above None 13. The growth of flowers is: Indeterminate Determinate Automatic Controlled None 14. The formation of cells of pith, cortex and vascular bundle is: Cell elongation Cell growth Maturation Cell division None 15. Which of the following is external factor in growth? Hormone Nutrition Temperature Water None 16. Which of the following factors supply energy during growth? Hormones Water Vitamins Nutrients None 17. Xylem and phloem are formed in: Stage 1 Stage 5 Stage 4 Stage 6 None 18. The phenomenon which inhibits the sprouting of lateral bud is: Apical dominance Inhibitory effects Compensatory effects None of the above None 19. The upper area with translucent appearance is: Area pellucida Area opaca Area of cell division None of the above None 20. Closely packed cells at cephalic end of primitive streak from a local thickening called: Primitive gut Hensen's node Primitive streak Somites None 21. During the development of chick, somites are formed after: 20 to 25 hours 25 - 26 hours 26 to 27 hours 28 to 29 hours None 22. Neural groove is formed after: 19-20 hours 21-22 hours 23-24 hours 24-25 hours None 23. The part of cytoplasm which form notochord is: Clear cytoplasm Yellow cytoplasm Grey vegetal Grey equatorial None 24. Selection of genes is done by: Nucleus Chromosome Cytoplasm Ribosomes None 25. The biologists perform experiments on induction: Spemann Mangold Both None None 26. Which of the following possesses the greatest power of regeneration? Reptiles Amphibians Man Sponges None 27. Earth worm can regenerate: Skin Tail Setae Head None 28. Lizard can regenerate: Head Limbs Tail Skin None 29. The branch which deals with the study of abnormal structures is: Physiology Teratology Gerontology Herpetology None 30. The syndrome which leads to tolerance and aggressiveness is: XXY XO XYY XXX None 31. Match tetrogen with the deficiency of one of the following: Insulin Gene Nutritional None None 32. Differentiation means: Formation of similar cells from different cells Formation of different tissues from similar cells Formation of similar tissues from similar cells None of the above None 33. Growth correlation means: One part inhabit the growth of other part One part promotes the growth of the other part One part affects the growth of the other parts All of the above None 34. Primitive streak forms: Digestive system of embryo Muscles of embryo It does not form any structure It supports the embryo None 35. The role of Cytoplasm in development is: Acts as template to form new structure Receives information from Nucleus Turns the genes on and off Does not take part in the development None 36. Which of the following is not aging? Loss of hair pigment Dryness of skin Increase of number of cells Increase of body weight None 37. The planaria has: Differentiated cells for regeneration Undifferentiated cells for regeneration Special cells for regeneration None of the above None 38. Intermediate growth is: Growth stops after sometimes Growth stops but starts again Growth never stop Growth continues during youth age None 39. The condition of small skull is: Haemophilia Cleft palate Microcephaly Polydactyl None 40. Tetrogens are: Genetic factors Environmental factors Hormonal facts Metabolic factors None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-20 Chromosomes & DNA Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-20 Chromosomes & DNA" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The number of chromosomes in some ferns is: 32 500 400 0 None 2. The chromosome in which centromere is present near the center of chromatids is: Acrocentric Telocentric Sub metacentric Metacentric None 3. The amount of DNA in chromosomes is: 20% 40% 60% 80% None 4. A typical commerce firm contains nucleotide about: 100 million 120 million 140 million 160 million None 5. Number of histone protein molecules in single nucleosomes are: 6 8 9 10 None 6. ''The central role of chromosome in heredity'' was suggested by: Walter Sutton Walther Fleming Mendel Karl Correns None 7. Transforming principle was formulated by: Oswald Avery Fred Griffith Karl Correns walther Sutton None 8. Basic structure of nuclei acid was determined by: P.A. Levene Walther Fleming F. Miescher Watson and Crick None 9. The diameter of DNA molecule is: 2 nm 3 nm 4 nm None 10. Number of hydrogen bonds formed between Guanine and Cytosine are: 1 2 3 4 None 11. The model of DNA replication in which one strand is convserved and other is synthesized is: Conservative Semi- conservative Dispersive None of the above None 12. The enzyme which attaches the fragments of DNA is: DNA polymerase I Primase Ligase DNA polymerase II None 13. The DNA polymerase adds how many nucleotides to the end? 2 3 4 5 None 14. The length of Okazaki fragments is: 100 - 200 nucleotide 200 - 300 nucleotide 300 - 400 nucleotide 400 - 500 nucleotide None 15. Match homogenetisic acid with one of the following: Hemophilia Anemia Alkaptonuria Tay Sach's disease None 16. Minimal minimal medium was prepared by: Beadle and Tatum Meselson - Stahl Garrod and Bateson Watson and Crick None 17. Sickle cell anemia is caused due to the change of glutamic acid to: Histidine Leucine Valine Proline None 18. The synthesis of protein is called: Replication Transcription Translation None of the above None 19. mRNA is synthesized by: RNA Polymerase I RNA Polymerase II RNA polmerase III None of the above None 20. Which of the followings is a stop signal for transcription? CA GA GC TA None 21. Total number of genetic codes is: 43 60 64 68 None 22. Genetic code for phenylalanine is: CCC UUU AAA GGG None 23. Which of the followings helps the tRNA to attach on exposed mRNA code at, A site: tRNA synthase Initiation factor Elongation factor Termination factor None 24. If the DNA of an human adult is lined up end to end, it will stretch nearly: 50 billion km 100 billion km 200 billion km 300 billion km None 25. The change of chromosomal number is: Delection Point mutation Insertion Aberration None 26. The objection on chromosomal theory of inheritance was: There are more chromosomes but less gene There are more gene but less chromosomes Each chromosome carry only one gene None of the above None 27. The opposite strand is called a coding strand or sense strand in transcription because: It has opposite chords of template strand It has similar codes as of template strand Its codes are similar to mRNA codes It's codes are opposite to mRNA codes None 28. The centromeric position divides the chromosome into how many type? 2 6 4 3 None 29. Sequence of specific nucleotide that result specific proteins is called: Nucleoside Gene Chromosomes Nucleotides None 30. In 1956 Vernon Ingram discovered molecular basis of: All Phenylketonuria Sickle cell anemia Ccancer None 31. DNA was first discovered in 1869 by: P.A. Levene Watson and Crick F. Miescher Franklind None 32. Chromosomes consist of DNA and protein in: 60% - 30% 20% -80% 40% - 60% 90% - 10% None 33. Waston and Crick: Locus DNA polymerase DNA model Meselon and Stahl None 34. M.Meselson: DNA replication Nucleotide Prokaryotes 2 nm None 35. P-site: Peptidyl site 1000 nucleotides/sec ACC Chromosomal aberration None 36. GCC: Proline Alanine Anticodon Stop codon None 37. Transcription bubble: Uribonucleotide Core enzyme Sigma factor GC + AT base pairs None 38. Stop signal: GC + AT base pairs 3' end U ribonucleotide Core enzyme None 39. TATAAT: tRNA Promotor sequence mRNA Human cell None 40. Coding strand: tRNA mRNA Human cell Sense strand None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-21 Cell Cycle Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-21 Cell Cycle" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Starting with a fertilized egg [zygote], a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells? 4 8 16 32 None 2. If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many cetromeres are there? 10 20 30 40 None 3. Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells? Telophase Anaphase Metaphase Interphase None 4. Which term describes cetromeres uncoupling, sister separating and the new two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell? Telophase Anaphase Prometaphase Metaphase None 5. A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei each containing how many chromosome? 16 23 46 92 None 6. If there are 20 centomeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? 10 20 30 40 None 7. The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells? Contain no DNA Contain no RNA Contain only one chromosome that is very short Are actually in the G0 phase None 8. If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase? 1 2 4 8 None 9. Taxol, anticancer drug, disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly so surprisingly, this stop mitosis. Specifically taxol must effect: The fibers of the mitotic spindle Anaphase Formation of centrioles The S phase of the cell cycle None 10. Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis? Telophase Prophase Metaphase Anaphase None 11. A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is fond to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have how many picograms at the end of te S phase and at the end of G2. 8;16 16;8 16;16 12;16 None 12. Which of the following questions might be answered by such a method? How many cells are produced by the culture per hour? What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle? When is the S chromosome synthesized? How many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle? None 13. Which is the shortest part of the cell cycle? G0 G1 S G2 M None 14. Nerve and muscle cells are in this phase: G0 G1 S G2 None 15. An enzyme that attaches a phosphate group to another molecule is called: Phosphates Phosphorylase Kinase ATPase None 16. Besides the ability of some cancer cells to over proliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor? Metastasis Changes in the order of cell cycle stages Lack of appropriate cell death Inability to form spindles None 17. In the cells of some Organism, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in: Cells with more than one nucleus Cells that are unusually small Cells lacking nuclei Destruction of chromosomes None 18. Which of the following is not a way that cell division solves the problems of cell growth? Cell division provides each daughter cell with its own copy of DNA Cell division increases the mass of the original cell Cell division increases the surface area of the original cell Cell division reduces the original cell's volume None 19. When during cell cycle is a cell's DNA replicated? G1 phase G2 phase S phase M phase None 20. Which of the following is a factor that can stop normal cells from growing? Contact with other cells Growth factors A cut in the skin Cyclin that has been taken from a cell in mitosis None 21. It is the period of extensive metabolic activity: G1 G0 S G2 None 22. Cancer is caused mainly by mutations in: Sex cells S-phase Somatic cells G2 stage None 23. The sex chromosome complement in individuals with Klinefelter's syndrome is: XXY XXYY XYYY Xy None 24. Mitosis is divided into: Cytokinesis Interphase Both A and D Karyokinesis None 25. The process of meiosis is completed in how many divisions? 3 5 2 4 None 26. Reduction in the chromosome number occurs during: Meiosis 2 Mitosis Both A and B Meiosis 1 None 27. Prophase one of meiosis is further divided into how many sub stages? 4 6 5 3 None 28. The length of chromosomes is: 0.40-0.80 um 1 um-3 um 0.25-0.50 um 0..60-1.2 um None 29. Cancer: Somatic cells Anaphase 1 Plant cell Pachytene None 30. XXY Turner's syndrome Necrosis Klinefelter's syndrome Mitosis None 31. Which type of tissue enables a person's fingers to move as he or she plays the piano? Nerve Connection Muscle Joints None 32. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their: Spindle fibers Size Growth rate Shape None 33. The two main stages of cell division are called: Synthesis and cytokinesis Cytokinesis and mitosis Mitosis and interphase Karyokinesis andCytokinesis None 34. Which of the following is a phase of mitosis? S phase Prophase Interphase G0 None 35. Turner's syndrome: Missing X Rapid division Cell cleavage Diplotene None 36. Malignant tumor: Diplotene Rapid division Cell cleavage Missing X None 37. Cell death: Necrosis Klinefelter's syndrome Turner's syndrome Mitosis None 38. Crossing over: Plant cell Pachytene Anaphase1 Somatic cells None 39. G2 phase: Resting phase 4.5 hours Chromatin Aster and spindle None 40. Small localized tumors are called: Cancer Benign Malign Interdigitate None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-22 Variation & Genetics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-22 Variation & Genetics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Two carriers of albinism have four children. One of their children is albino and the remaining three are normally pigmented. What is the probability that their next child will be albino? 0% 25% 75% 100% None 2. Which of the following is an example of dihybrid cross? AaBb x aabb AaBb x AaBb aabb x AABB aabb x aabb None 3. Which of the following incorrectly identifies the mode of inheritance for the given genetic disease? Distal Symphalangism- dominant Cystic fibrosis recessive Albinism recessive Sickle cell dominant None 4. Approximately how many human single gene traits and illness are currently known from medical reports? 100 1000 10000 100000 None 5. In which genotype is normally not found in a gamete? AB Ab aa ab None 6. Two phenotypically normal individuals have an affected child. What can we conclude about the parents? They both carried the disease allele They are not the parents of the child They are affected No conclusions can be drawn None 7. Consider a group of 100 individual [50 couples], all of whom carry a recessive disease allele. If 200 children were born to these couples, what percentage of the children would ,theoretically, be carriers like their parents? 0 25 50 75 None 8. Consider the cross AaBb x AaBb. If the alleles for both genes exhibit complete dominance, what genotypic ratio is expected in the resulting offspring? 1:1:1:1 9:3:3:1 3:6:3:1:2:1 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 None 9. Achondroplasia is a dominant form of dwarfism.what is the chance of having an unaffected child from two? 0 25 50 75 None 10. Female and male sex cells are called: Hybrids Alleles Genotypes Gametes None 11. What is the major value in using a Punnett square? Shows all gametic combinations Shows genotype ratios Shows phenotypic ratios Shows A.B and C None 12. The branch of biology dealing with the principles that explain the similarities between parents and their progeny and differences among individuals of a species: Inheritance Heredity Genetics Variation None 13. A recessive gene can be expressed if the genotype is: Homozygous recessive Homozygous dominant Heterozygous Both B and C None 14. If an Organism with the genotype Ww is crossed with a Ww Organism, what would be the propagation proportion of offspring that would be heterozygous? 1/4 1/2 3/4 All would be heterozygous None 15. Phenotype is: The genetic make-up of an individual The same for parent and offspring Not observable The appearance of an individual None 16. In humans, brown eyes B is dominant to blue eyes b.A brown eyed man marries a blue eyed woman. The possible eye colours of their children are: All brown Half brown 3/4 brown, 1/4 blue Not enough information is given None 17. If an individual has a recessive phenotype for a given trait, the genotype must: Heterozygous Homozygous recessive Homozygous dominant Either homozygous recessive or heterozygous None 18. The part of DNA which controls a specific character is: Allele Gene Locus Factor None 19. The form of appearance of trait is: Gene pool Genotype Phenotype Mutation None 20. True breeding variety is: Self fertilized Cross fertilized Unisexual Hermaphrodite None 21. The organisms produced by self cross differing in one character's are: True breed Dihybrids Monohybrids Hybrid None 22. Law of segregation suggests that each gamete has: TT Tt T tt None 23. A sample population of hundred plants has number of alleles: 50 100 200 400 None 24. The work of Mendel was rediscovered after how many years of his death is? 12 years 14 years 16 years 18 years None 25. Match particulate hereditary factor of Mendel which one of the followings: Gene Factor Allele Trait None 26. If test cross gives all dominant character it means the parent is: Homozygous recessive Heterozygous Homozygous dominant Heterozygous dominant None 27. In test cross if the parent whose genotype is to be determined is heterozygous then it gives: 1:1 3:1 1:2:1 1:2 None 28. Blood group MN has antigen: M N MN None of the above None 29. The blood group without antibody is: A AB B O None 30. Who for the first time found white eye mutation in Drosophila? Morgan Bridges Correns De Varies None 31. Both husband and wife have blood group A. Which of the following blood groups can be present in their offspring? B AB O None of the above None 32. The gametes of F1 are formed in ratio: 1:2 1:1:1:1 9:3:3:1 1:1 None 33. If there is cross between round and yellow with wrinkle and green, the F2 will give wrinkle green in ratio of: 9/16 3/16 1/16 2/16 None 34. The genes that expressed in heterozygous conditions show: Complete dominance Incomplete dominance CoDominance Over dominance None 35. A parent has blood group A the other has blood group AB Bombay phenotype will be produced in offspring with blood group: A B AB O None 36. Which of the followings is not continuously varying trait? Human height Red white flower Humans skin colour Cornel colour in weight None 37. The phenomenon in which genes are present on the same chromosome is: Cross over Segregation Linkage Independent assortment None 38. Queen Victoria was carrier of haemophilia but his husband was normal. The ratio of haemophilic Princes can be: 1:2 3:1 1:1 1:4 None 39. A normal woman, whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blinded man. The ratio of their children for colour blindness can be: 50% 25% 100% 75% None 40. The text cross gives the ratio 1:1. The individual whose genotype is to be determined is: Homozygous dominant Heterozygous dominant Homozygous recessive None of the above None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-23 Biotechnology Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-23 Biotechnology" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1 out of 0 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-24 Evolution Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-24 Evolution" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1 out of 0 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-25 Ecosystem Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-25 Ecosystem" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1 out of 0 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-26 Some Major Ecosystems Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-26 Some Major Ecosystems" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1 out of 0 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... 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