Important Announcements Important Announcements Physics CH-1 Measurements Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-1 Measurements" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The Branch of physics which deals with atomic nuclei is called ? Thermodynamics Nuclear Physics Atomic Physics Plasma Physics None 2. SI Unit of Electric Current is ? Time Gram Ampere Voltage None 3. Which of the following is supplementary unit ? Length Mass Radian Radius None 4. Unit of electric charge is ? Watt Ampere Coulomb Volt None 5. The branch of science, which deals with forces acting on bodies in motion, is called ? Mechanics Megnatism Physical Processes Forces None 6. We can write one Kilo = _______. 10^2 10^3 10^4 10^5 None 7. Significant figures in 0.0045 are ? 1 2 3 4 None 8. Significant figures in 5.78000 are 3 4 5 6 None 9. 43.75 can be rounded off as ? 43.75 43.8 43.85 43.7 None 10. Dimension of Speed ? [LT^-1] [LT^-2] [LT^-3] [LT^-4] None 11. Candela is the unit of ? Light Viscosity Intensity Velocity None 12. The unit of absolute temperature is ? C F K None None 13. In C.G.S system what is the unit of length ? g cm k m None 14. The SI unit of torque is ? m Nm N Pa None 15. In SI unit the unit of energy is ? Force Joule Newton Meter None 16. Meter per second is the unit of ? Accelaration Velocity Time Mass None 17. In M.K.S what is the Unit of pressure ? Newton Pascal Nm Nm^2 None 18. Physics is a quantitative science based primarily on ? Experiments Measurements Experiments & Measurements Energy None 19. The first book of physics was written by ? Kelvin Aristotle Newton Isaac None 20. Work is measured in Joules while energy is expressed in ? Joule Newton Nm Pa None 21. Which of the following quantities have same dimensions ? Torque & Power Energy & Power Energy & Torque Energy & Force None 22. Assessment of total uncertainty for addition or subtraction the uncertainties are ? Subtracted Multiplied Added Divided None 23. The number of significant figures in 0.098000 is ? 2 3 4 5 None 24. The SI unit for measuring 3-D angle is ? Radian Steradian Pi Degree None 25. One year = ? 8.6 x 10^4 8 x 10^4 6.5 x 10^3 2.5 x 10^2 None 1 out of 5 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-2 Vectors & Equilibrium Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-2 Vectors & Equilibrium" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. An example of scalar quantity is: Displacement Speed Velocity Torque None 2. A vector is described by magnitude as well as: Angle Distance Direction None None 3. If both components of a vector are negative, then resultant lies in: 1st Quadrant 2nd Quadrant 3rd Quadrant 4th Quadrant None 4. The vector with a zero magnitude and arbitrary direction is: Directional Vector Null Vector Angular Vector Circular Vector None 5. The direction of a vector in a plane is measured with respect to two straight lines which are _______ to each other: Parallel Perpendicular Equal At the Angle of 60° None 6. A single vector having the same effect as all the original vectors taken together, is called: Resultant vector Equal vector Position vector Unit vector None 7. The angle between rectangular components of vector is: 45° 60° 90° 180° None 8. Negative of a vector has direction _______ that of the original vector: Same as Perpendicular Opposite to Inclined to None 9. The direction of vector product is given by: Head to tail rule Right hand rule Left hand rule Triangular rule None 10. Dot product of two non-zero vectors is zero, when angle between them is: 0° 30° 45° 90° None 11. The magnitude of dot and cross product of two vectors are 6√3 and 6 respectively. The angle between them will be: 0° 30° 45° 60° None 12. The minimum number of unequal forces whose resultant will be zero: 1 2 3 4 None 13. Torque is defined as: Turning effect of force Cross product of force and position vector Product of force and moment arm All of above None 14. If a body is at rest, then it will be in: Static equilibrium Dynamic equilibrium Translational equilibrium Unstable equilibrium None 15. For a body to be in complete equilibrium: ∑F=0 and ∑M=0 ∑ F = 0 ∑ t = 0 None None 16. Two vectors to be combined have magnitudes 60 N and 35 N. The correct answer for the magnitude of their resultant will be: 15 N 20 N 70 N 100 N None 17. In two-dimensional coordinate system, the components of the origin are taken as: (1, 1) (1, 0) (0, 1) (0, 0) None 18. The resultant of two or more vectors is obtained by: Joining the tail of the first vector with the head of the last vector Joining the head of the first vector with the tail of the last vector Joining the tail of the last vector with the head of the first vector Joining the head of the last vector with the tail of the first vector None 19. If the line of action of force passes through axis of rotation or the origin, then its torque is: Maximum Unity Zero None of these None 20. The magnitude of a vector can never be: Positive Negative Positive and negative None of these None 21. The position vector of a point p is a vector that represents its position with respect to: Another vector Centre of the earth Any point in space Origin of the coordinate system None 22. The sine of an angle is positive in _______ quadrants: First and Second Second and fourth First and third Third and fourth None 23. If Ax = Ay, then the angle between the vector A with x-axis will be: 0° 30° 45° 9° None 24. The scalar product of two vectors A and B is written as: A x B A . B A B AB None 25. If dot product of two vectors which are not perpendicular to each other is zero, then either of the vectors is: A unit vector Opposite to the other A null vector Position vector None 26. Torque has zero value, if the angle between ̅r and ̅F is: 0° 90° 270° 180° None 27. Momentum is a _______ quantity: Vector Scalar Negative Logical None 1 out of 6 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-3 Motion & Force Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-3 Motion & Force" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. If a force of 50 N is applied on a body whose mass is 5 kg find the amount of an acceleration? 5 m/s² 1 m/s² 10 m/s² 100 m/s² None 2. If a body is moving with constant velocity, then Its direction may be changing Its acceleration is variable Its acceleration is zero None of the above None 3. In elastic collision between two bodies: Energy is conserved but momentum is not Both momentum and energy are conserved Momentum is conserved but energy is not Both momentum and energy are not conserved None 4. A fog droplet falls vertically with an acceleration while touching ground: Equal to g Less than g Greater than g Equal to zero None 5. The area between the velocity-time graph and the time axis is numerically equal to: Velocity Distance Time Acceleration None 6. The SI unit of velocity is: m/s s/m cm/s p/s None 7. If the slop of velocity-time graph gradually decreases, then the body is said to be moving with: Positive acceleration Negative acceleration Uniform velocity Variable velocity None 8. Inertia of an object is quantitative measure of its: Volume Density Mass Temperature None 9. Momentum depends upon: Force act on the body Mass of the body Velocity of the body Both mass and velocity of the body None 10. Range of a projectile on a horizontal plane is same for the following pair of angles: 30° and 60° 20° and 80° 0° and 45° 10° and 90° None 11. The dimension of force is: [𝑀𝐿𝑇]⁻² [𝑀𝐿2𝑇]⁻² [𝑀𝐿2𝑇]² [𝑀𝐿−2𝑇]⁻² None 12. Which of the following pair has same direction always? Force, displacement Force, velocity Force, acceleration Force, momentum None 13. The area under the curve of velocity-time graph: Accelaration Velocity Time & Graph None None 14. The velocity of projectile at its maximum height is: V𝑖 sin 𝜃 V𝑖 cos 𝜃 Maximum Zero None 15. When a body move in straight line, displacement is: Linear Circular Along the path Unifrom None 16. The range of projectile is same for angles of: 30° and 45° 45° and 60° 50° and 45° 30° and 60° None 17. During projectile motion, the horizontal component of velocity: Changes with time Becomes zero Remains constant Increases with time None 18. Taking off rocket can be explained by: 1st law of motion 2nd law of motion Law of conservation of momentum Law of conservation of energy None 19. An alternate unit to 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑠−1 is: Js Ns Nm N None 20. If the velocity time graph becomes steeper and steeper then acceleration: Remains constant Decreases Increses None 21. Slope of velocity time graph represents: Distance Displacement Acceleration None 22. Laws of motion are not valid in a frame which is: Inertial Non-Inertial In Space None of these None 23. The mass of 10 Kg moves with an acceleration of 10 m/s2, The force o n it is: 50 N 80 N 90 N 100 N None 24. A ball is projected at an angle of 45⁰ t the horizontal. If the horizontal range is 20 m the maximum height to which the ball rises: 2.5 m 5.0 m 7.5 m 10 m None 25. Acceleration of 1.5 m/s² expressed in km/h² is: 324 5.4 19440 5000 None 1 out of 5 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-4 Work & Energy Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-4 Work & Energy" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. A slope of work time graph is equal to: Displacement Acceleration Power Energy None 2. Work done will be maximum if the angle between the force (F) and displacement (d) is: 45⁰ 90⁰ 180⁰ 0⁰ None 3. Work has the dimensions as that of same as: Torque Angular momentum Linear momentum Power None 4. Work is the product of: Force and distance Force and displacement Force and velocity Force and energy None 5. The work done will be negative when force and displacement are: In opposite direction Same direction Perpendicular None None 6. The area under force displacement curve gives: Energy Work Momentum Torque None 7. The work done is independent of: Path followed by the body Force Gravity Conservative field None 8. Work is defined as _____ of force and displacement: Vector product Scaler product Both None None 9. A field in which work done is independent of the path followed is called: Electric field Gravitational field Magnetic field Conservative field None 10. Work is a: Scalar quantity Vector quantity Both None None 11. Which of the following force can do no work on the body when it acts: Elastic force Centripetal force Frictional force Gravitational force None 12. If a body of weight (w) is lifted through a height (h) then work done will be: wh Zero wh sin O – wh None 13. The rate of doing work is called: Work Force Momentum Power None 14. One horse power is equal to: 746 Watt 745 Watt 750 Watt 775 Watt None 15. In British engineering system, the unit of power is: Joule Watt Horse power Kilowatt horse None 16. 1 kwh is equal to: 3.6 x 10⁵ J 36 x 10⁵ J 3.6 x 10⁶ J 3.5 x 10⁵ J None 17. Work is always on a body when: It moves through a certain distance It experiences a force while in motion A force is exerted on it None None 18. If an agent consumes a power of 1 kilowatt in one hour the work done is: One Watt One Kilo-watt One Kilo-watt hour None None 19. The energy possessed by the body due to its motion is: Kinetic energy Potential energy Chemical energy None None 20. The energy possessed by the body due to its position is: Kinetic energy Potential energy Chemical energy None None 21. The expression for potential energy is: P.E = mgh² P.E = 1/2 mgh P.E = mgh P.E = m²gh None 22. The unit of potential energy is same as that: Work Force Momentum Power None 23. Body of mass 5 kg moving with a velocity of 2 m/s then its K.E is: 20 J 5 J 10 J 15 J None 24. The potential energy of an object on the surface of earth is: 1/2 mv² mgh 2mg Zero None 25. The work done on a body from earth surface to infinity appears as: Elastic potential energy Absolute P.E Zero P.E Maximum P.E None 26. The absolute potential energy is measured from the: Centre of earth Surface of Earth Near to Earth Infinity None 27. Energy possessed by body due to its special configuration is called: Electrostatic energy Gravitational potential energy Elastic potential energy None None 28. The energy of waves can be used to generate: Magnetic effect Electricity Solar energy Geothermal energy None 29. What is the work done in kilo joules in lifting a man of 10 kg through a vertical height of 10 m: 9.8 kJ 980 kJ 0.98 kJ 98 kJ None 30. The tidal energy is due to the gravitational pull of: Sun Planet Mars Moon None 31. Which one is the biggest unit of energy: Erg Joule Kilowatt hour Watt hour None 32. The average power and instantaneous power becomes equal if work is done at: At any rate At variable rate At uniform rate At high rate None 33. If mass of a moving object is doubled its kinetic energy becomes: 2 times 4 times 5 times 16 times None 34. One Kilo-watt hour of work is equal to: 0.36 MJ 3.6 MJ 36 MJ 360 MJ None 35. The work done by the force of 10 Newton applied parallel to the direction of motion up to 20 m: 10 J 20 J 200 J 2000 J None 36. The tide raise the matter in the sea roughly in a day: Once Twice Four Times Eight Times None 37. One dyne is equal to: 10³ N 10⁵ N 10⁸ N 10² N None 38. The escape velocity of a body depends upon: The mass of the body The mass of the planet Density of the planet Volume of the planet None 39. Which of the following is not a biomass: Crop residue Animal drug Coal Sewage None 40. The K.E of a body of mass 2 kg and momentum 2 Ns is: 1 J 2 J 3 J 4 J None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-5 Circular Motion Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-5 Circular Motion" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The angle through which a body moves is called: Angular displacement Angular velocity Angular acceleration None of these None 2. The angular acceleration is produced by : Momentum Torque Pressure Power None 3. One radian is equal to: 47.3° 57.3° 67.3° 59.3° None 4. Unit of angular velocity in SI unit is: Rad/s m/s Degree/s Revolution/s None 5. Radian is defined as the angle subtended at the center of circle by an: Arc whose length equal to radius of circle Arc whose length less than radius of circle Arc whose length greater than radius of circle None of these None 6. The dimension of angular acceleration is: T T² T⁻² LT None 7. A body of mass 4 kg moves along a circle of radius of 2 m with a constant speed of 4 m/s. The centripetal force is: 32 N 16 N 20 N 64 N None 8. When torque acting on a system is zero, which of the following is constant: Linear momentum force Angular momentum Impulse None 9. In case of planets, the necessary acceleration is provided by: Coulombs force Centripetal force Gravitation force None of these None 10. The apparent weight of a man in a lift moving down with an acceleration of 9.8 m s is: Zero 9.8N 19.6N Infinity None 11. The mud flies off the tyre of a moving bicycle in the direction of: Towards the center Tangent of the tyre Along the radius Along the motion None 12. The minimum number of communication satellites required to cover the whole earth is: 4 3 2 5 None 13. Pull of earth on a mass of 20 kg on the surface of the earth is: 20 N 196 N 19.6 N 197 N None 14. The rate of change of angular momentum of a body is: The applied torque The applied force Both A & B None of these None 15. A man of weight W is standing on an elevator which is ascending with an acceleration a. The apparent weight of a man is: mg mg - ma mg + ma None 16. The total weight of a body acts as: Its center of gravity Its center Its one end Its other end None 17. The value of 'g' at the centre of the earth is: Infinite Double Zero None of these None 18. Geo-stationary satellite completes one rotation around earth in: 3 hours 6 hours 12 hours 24 hours None 19. A cricketer spins the ball before bowling to: Give it downward deflection Give it upward deflection Keep it straight None of these None 20. Suppose a body of cylindrical shape is called down on an inclined plane of height h. It contains: Transnational K.E Rotational K.E Both A & B None of these None 21. If the earth stops rotating weight of a body on the equator: Inceases Remains constant Decreases None of these None 22. Height of closest orbit of the satellite above the earth is: 100 km 160 km 250 km 320 km None 23. Centripetal force performs: Maximum work Minimum work Negative work No work None 24. When a body is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string the centripetal force is supplied by: Mass of a body Velocity of body Tension in the string None of these None 25. Which theory of gravitation is better: Newton Einstein Compton Plank None 26. Global positioning system can be formed by _____ artificial satellites: 22 42 3 24 None 27. If a solid sphere rolls on a horizontal surface, the ratio of its rotational K.E. to its total K.E. is: 1:3 2:7 7:3 None of these None 28. The geo-stationary satellite are used for: Word communication Weather observation Navigation All of above None 29. Which electromagnetic wave are used as medium in satellite communication system: Microwaves Radio waves Infrared waves ultraviolet waves None 30. Entire populated earth, surface is covered by: Four Three Two None of these None 31. A body becomes weightless: Spaceship orbiting the earth Outside the field free region On the earth's centre All of above None 32. The axis of rotation of a rotating body in the absence of external torque: Countinuously changes Remain fixed in direction Both A & B None of these None 33. The acceleration due to gravity: Same value at every place Same value everywhere on the surface of the earth Varies with altitude None of these None 34. The product of the mass m of the rotating body and the square of radius of gyration is called: Moment of inertia Torque Linear momentum None of these None 1 out of 7 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-6 Fluid Dynamics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-6 Fluid Dynamics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The study of properties of fluids in motion is called: Viscosity Fluid dynamics Fluid statics Friction None 2. Stock's law holds for: Cylindrical bodies Cubical bodies Spherical bodies None of these None 3. The drag force increases as the speed of particle: Increases Decreases Remains constant None of these None 4. The word fluid means: To fall To rise To flow None of these None 5. When the body is reaches its terminal velocity,the acceleration of body becomes: Maximum speed Minimum speed Zero Constant quantity None 6. If radius of droplet becomes half than its terminal velocity will be: Half Double One fourth Four times None 7. Due to increase in temperature, the viscosity of the fluid: Increases Decreases Remains constant Becomes double None 8. Which one of the following is most viscous: Glycerine Coal tar Honey None of these None 9. Internal friction of a fluid is called: Surface tension Resistance Viscosity None of these None 10. Turbulent flow is: Unsteady and regular Steady and regular Unsteady and irregular None 11. Velocity of fluid increases where the pressure is: Low High Constant Change continuously None 12. Ideal fluid is: Non-viscous Incompressible Steady flow Possess all properties None 13. The force of friction that comes into action after the motion has started is called: Limiting friction Static friction Friction None of these None 14. If each particle of fluid passing through a point follows the same path, then flow is called: Regular flow Streamline flow Normal flow Turbulent flow None 15. A fog droplet falls vertically through air with an acceleration: Greater than g Less than g Equal to g Equal to zero None 16. For which position, blood pressure in the body have the smallest value: Standing straight Sitting on chair Sitting on ground Lying horizontally None 17. Swing is produced to: Increase the speed of ball Decrease the speed of ball Deceive the player Applying the force on the ball None 18. Bernoulli's equation is based upon law of conservation of: Momentum Energy Mass All of these None 19. Bernoulli's equation includes as a special case of: Torricelli's theorem Stoke's law Newton's law None of these None 20. Blood is an in-compressible fluid having a density nearly equal to that of: Water Oil Milk All of these None 21. Blood pressure is measured by: Barometer Stetho scope Sphygmomanometer Hydrometer None 22. Sphygmo is a: Greek word Spanish word Latin word None of these None 23. In laminar flow, adjacent layers: Mix with each other Smoothly slide one over the other Oppose each other None of these None 24. A man is standing near a fast moving train: To fall towards the track To fall away from the track No effect None of these None 25. The systolic pressure is about: 120 torr 125 torr 115 torr 130 torr None 26. For which position, will the maximum blood pressure in the body have the smallest value: Standing one's leg Lying horizontally Standing up right None of these None 27. Friction in fluids is known as: Drag force Viscosity Surface tension None None 28. A device used to measure speed of liquid flow: Venturi meter Speed meter Sphyginomeno-meter None None 29. A liquid flows through a pipe of varying diameter. the velocity of the liquid is 2 m/s at a point where the diameter is 6 cm. The velocity of the liquid at a point where diameter is 3 cm will be: 1 m/s 4 m/s 8 m/s 16 m/s None 30. Bunsen burner works on the principle of: Venturi effect Torricilli's effect Bernoulli's effect None of these None 31. The speed of efflux is equal to the velocity gained by the falling fluid under the action of gravity through a certain height is called: Torricell's theorem Venture's theorem Cornot engine None of these None 1 out of 7 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-7 Oscillations Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-7 Oscillations" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. A motion which repeats itself in equal intervals of time is: Rotatory motion Periodic motion Oscillatory motion Translatory motion None 2. In SHM, the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to: Applied force Displacement Restoring force Amplitude None 3. The law which derived in SHM by: Hook's law Amperes's law Dalton's law Newton's law None 4. The maximum distance of the vibrating body from the mean position is called: Displacement Time period Frequency Amplitude None 5. The time taken to complete one revolution is called: Frequency Time period Time Displacement None 6. An example of SHM is: Motion of Earth around the sun Motion of simple pendulum Motion of cricket ball None of these None 7. The restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement within elastic limit, this is the statement of: Hook's law Newton's law Meld's law Young's law None 8. The velocity of a body in SHM is maximum at the: Extreme position Between mean and extreme position Mean position Between extreme and mean None 9. The time period of simple pendulum depends upon: Thickness of the thread Mass of pendulum Length of the pendulum Amplitude None 10. One complete round trip of a vibrating body is called: Time period Frequency Vibration Amplitude None 11. A body performing SHM has a displacement X given by the equation X = 30 sin 50 t, what is the frequency of oscillation: 0.020 Hz 0.13 Hz 8.0 Hz 50 Hz None 12. When a particle is moving along a circular path, its projection along the diameter executes: S.H.M Angular motion Linear motion Rotatory motion None 13. In vibratory motion: P.E remains constant K.E remains constant Total energy remains constant None of these None 14. The total energy of a mass attached with spring is: Remain constant Increased Decreased None of these None 15. If the mass of the bob of simple pendulum is doubled, its time period is: One half Double Remains constant One fourth None 16. The frequency of second pendulum is: 0.5 Hz 15 Hz 2 Hz 1 Hz None 17. The length of second's pendulum is: 0.99 m 0.6 m 3 m 2 m None 18. When the bob of simple pendulum is at main position then it has: Potential energy Kinetic energy Both P.E and K.E None of these None 19. The time period of a simple pendulum depends upon: Mass of Bob Length of thread Height of Bob None of these None 20. A heating and cooking of food evenly by microwave oven is an example of: S.H.M Damped oscillations Resonance None of these None 21. If an oscillating body is subjected to an external force then it is said to be executing: Free oscillations Forced oscillations Mixed oscillations Damping None 22. Loud music produced by sounding wooden boards of strings instruments is an example of: Free oscillations Beats Forced oscillations Damped oscillations None 23. How long must be the length of a simple pendulum in order to have a period of one second: 0.50 m 0.25 m 1 m 3 m None 24. Damping effect applied on an aeroplane wing is: For more speed To push upward To overcome resonance effect To overcome gravity None 25. In oscillating motion: P.E remains constant K.E remains constant Total energy remains constant None of these None 26. The oscillatory motion which does not repeat after regular interval of time is called: Periodic motion Circular motion Non -periodic motion Orbital motion None 27. Acceleration of spring mass system is: Uniform Variable due to both change in magnitude and direction Vibration due to change in direction Vibration due to change in magnitude None 28. The frequency of waves produced in microwave oven is: 2450 MHz 1435 MHz 1760 MHz 2550 MHz None 29. The amplitude of a vibrating body at resonance in vacuum is: Maximum Infinite Minimum None of these None 30. At which of the following places motion of a simple pendulum is fastest: Karachi Rehim Yar Khan Lahore Islamabad None 31. A cheap Pendulum clock will: Lose time in summer and gain time in winter Gain time in summer and lose time in winter Keep correct time None of these None 32. When the mass and speed of a body are doubled, the kinetic energy becomes: 5 times 4 times 8 times 16 times None 33. Solar cells are made up from the material called: Iron Oxygen Carbon Silicon None 34. Time period of second pendulum at moon is: 1 sec. 2 sec. 3 sec. 4 sec. None 35. A body performing simple harmonic motion has a displacement X given by the equation = 30 sin 50 t, where it is the time in seconds. what is the frequency of oscillations? 0.020 Hz 0.13 Hz 8.0 Hz 30 Hz None 36. Waves transmit from one place to another: Wavelength Amplitude Mass Energy None 37. The product of time period and frequency is equal to: 3 2 1 Zero None 38. Which of the following is an example of damped oscillations? Mass attached to a spring Bob of Pendulum Shock absorber of a car All of them None 39. A simple pendulum is oscillating in a lift. If the lift starts moving upwards with a uniform acceleration, the period will: Remains unaffected Be shorter Be longer May be shorter or longer depending on the magnitude of acceleration None 40. Went two identical travelling waves are superposed, the velocity of the resultant waves: Decreases Increases Remains unchanged Becomes zero None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-8 Waves Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-8 Waves" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The particle of the medium vibrates in longitudinal waves: Along the direction of wave motion Do not vibrate at all Opposite the direction of wave motion Perpendicular to the direction of wave motion None 2. The waves associated with particles in motion are called: Light waves Electronic waves Matter waves None 3. A wave which transfer energy in moving from the source of disturbance is called: Travelling waves Matter waves Water waves Radio waves None 4. The distance between two successive crests or troughs is called: Area Displacement Amplitude Wavelength None 5. All parts of the wave pattern move with: Same speed Different speed Double speed None of above None 6. Waves in which particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of propagation are called: Transverse Waves Stationary waves Longitudinal waves Complex waves None 7. Passage of waves from one medium into another is called: Reflection Refraction Transmission Diffraction None 8. If 30 waves per second pass through a medium at a speed of 30 m/s wavelength of these waves is: 30 m 15 m 1 m 280 m None 9. The point at which the displacement of the wave is zero called: Node Trough Anti- nod Crest None 10. when two similar ways moving along the same line in opposite direction are superposed, they give rise to: Stationary waves Longitudinal waves Compressed waves Travelling waves None 11. The stationary waves consists of: Crest and troughs Nodes and anti Nodes reflection and refraction None of these None 12. When stationary waves are set up in a cord which is fixed at both ends, the points which always remain at rest is called: Nodes Anti-nodes Both [a] and ]b] None of these None 13. The speed of sound waves is independent of: Pressure source of sound Medium Temperature None 14. Newton's formula for the speed of sound is corrected by: Graham Bell Laplace Huygen Weber-fechner None 15. The velocity of sound in air at 0 C is: 332 m/s 300 m/s 322 m/s 280 m/s None 16. Velocity of sound in vacuum is: Zero 332 m/s 280 m/s 325 m/s None 17. The speed of sound waves in a medium depends upon: Density of Medium Amplitude of the particle Elasticity of medium Both density and elasticity of medium None 18. The velocity of sound is greatest in: Steel Air Iron Water None 19. The speed of sound is greater in solids than in gasses due to their high: Temperature Pressure Density Elasticity None 20. Two ways of different frequency and travelling in the same direction is called: Interference Beats Stationary waves Sound waves None 21. Principle of superposition of waves is applied in: Formation of beats Formation of stationary waves Interference of sound waves All of the above None 22. Beds cannot be heard if the difference of frequencies is more than about: 6 4 9 10 None 23. A stretched string with both ends fixed corresponds to: A closed end pipe An open- end organ pipe Both A and B None of these None 24. The pitch of the sound is determined by its: Speed Frequency Direction Number of beats None 25. What is the approximate range of audible frequencies for a young person: 2 Hz to 2000 Hz 20 Hz to 2000 Hz 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz 200 Hz to 2 Hz None 26. Sound frequencies lower than 20 Hz are called: Supersonics Infrasonics Ultrasonics Audible sound waves None 27. Beats are the result of: Interference Diffraction of sound waves Polarization None of the above None 28. Musical sound depends upon; Velocity Frequency Amplitude Periodicity and regularity None 29. The number of beats produced per second is equal to: The difference of frequencies of two tuning forks forks The sum of frequencies of two tuning forks The ratio of the frequencies of two tuning forks None of these None 30. Radar system is the application of: Photoelectric effect Doppler effect Compton effect None of these None 31. When source of sound approaches the listener at rest, the frequency of sound received by him is: Less than the frequency of sound produced by source Hey Cortana Greater than the frequency of sound produced by source Hey Cortana Same as that produced by source Zero None 32. Dog hears sound which ranges: 150 -150000 Hz 100 - 12000 Hz 50 - 70000 Hz 15 - 50000 Hz None 33. Two pipes one is open and other is closed at one end are of same length than the ratio of their fundamental frequencies is: 1:2 2:1 1:1 1:4 None 34. The frequency of waves produced to microwave oven is: 1435 MHz 2450 MHz 1860 MHz 2850 MHz None 35. The minimum length of a closed pipe which can resound with a note of wavelength 1 m is: 0.25 m 0.5 m 0.75 m 1 m None 1 out of 7 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-9 Physical Optics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-9 Physical Optics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Light is the source to: Create energy Destroy energy Carry energy All of the above None 2. According to Newton, light travels in the form of: Photons Waves Carpascular Electrons None 3. Huygen proposed that light travels in space by means of wave motion in: 1960 1690 1680 1670 None 4. Light is the type of: Momentum Velocity Energy Acceleration None 5. The direction in which light energy is carried called: Ray Wave front Locus All of above None 6. A plane wave is obtained if a point source of light is passed at the focus of a: Glass Plane Lens Mirror None of these None 7. All the points on a primary wavefront can be considered at the source for the production of secondary wavelets is: Huygen principle Hertz principle Newton's principle Maxwell's principle None 8. Light waves are: Complex Monochromatic Mixture of monochromatic and complex None of these None 9. When waves pass from one medium to another: Their wavelength changes Their speed changes Frequency remains costant All of above None 10. The first explanation of wave nature of light was provided in 1801 by the experiment of: Maxwell Thomas Young Huygen Newton None 11. Huygen principle states that: Live travel in electromagnetic waves Light has dual nature Light travel in straight line All points on primary wavefront are source of secondary wavelets None 12. Interference effects of light was verified by: Bragg Newton Thomas Young None of the above None 13. Which one of the following is monochromatic light source: Light from simple lamp Light from sodium lamp Light from fluouscent Light from neon lamp None 14. When crest of one way falls over the trough of the other wave, this phenomenon is known as: Diffraction Polarisation Constructive interference Destructive interference None 15. In order to get interference of light waves: The sources should be monochromatic The sources should be phase coherent The law of super-position should be applicable All of above None 16. In Young's experiment if white light is used: Dark fringe will be seen Bright fringe will be seen Alternate dark and bright fringrs will be seen No fringe will be seen None 17. A thin layer of oil on the surface of water looks coloured due to: Transmission of light Polarization of light Interference of light None of these None 18. Soap films in sunlight appears coloured due to Diffraction of light Scattering of light Interference of light Dispersing of light None 19. A white light passed through a prism is: Polarized Dispersed Diffracted Deviated None 20. Newton's rings are formed due to: Reflection of light Polarization of light Interference of light Diffraction of light None 21. Michelson interferometer can be used to find the: Wavelength of light Wavelength of sound Velocity of sound Velocity of light None 22. Diffraction effects are: More for sharp edges Less for cylindrical Les for round edge Less for sharp edge None 23. Diffraction effects was discovered in 1801 by: Newton Henry Huygen W.L Bragg None 24. Interference effects of light were verified by: Thomas Young Newton Einstein W.L Bragg None 25. The main advantage of a grating over young's apparatus is the: Absence of bright light Greater deviation of light Absence of dark fringes Sharpness of bright lines None 26. The blue of the sky is due to Polarization Reflection Refraction Scattering None 27. The polarization of an electromagnetic waves is determined by: Electric field Magnetic field Both electric and magnetic The direction of waves None 28. A polarized is: A light filter To analyzsed polarized light Used in polarimeter And adjustsable shatter None 29. Young's double slit experiment proves: Dual nature of light Particle nature of light Wave nature of light None of these None 30. light on passing through a polaroid: Unpolarized Plane polarized Elliptically polarized Circularly polarized None 31. Wave length of light on the average is given by: 10⁻⁹ 10⁻¹⁰ 10⁻⁴ 10⁻⁶ None 32. The wavelength of X -rays is of the order of: 10 A⁰ 1000 A⁰ 1 A⁰ 100 A⁰ None 33. Wavelength of X- rays falling at glancing angle of 30⁰ on a crystal with atomic spacing 2 x 10⁻¹⁰ m for the first order diffraction is: 4x10⁻¹⁰ m 2x10⁻¹⁰ m 0.2 x 10⁻¹⁰ m 20 x10⁻¹⁰ m None 34. If 5000 lines per cm are ruled on a diffraction grating, then the slit spacing will be: 5 x10⁻³ A⁰ 0.02 m 2 x10⁻⁴ A⁰ 2 x10⁴ A⁰ None 35. The index of refraction of diamond is 2.0 velocity of light in diamond in m/sec. is: 6 x10⁸ 3 x 10⁸ 2 x 10⁸ 1.5 x 10⁸ None 36. When one mirror of a Michelson interferometer is move a distance of 0.5 mm, 2000 fringes are observed, the wavelength of light used is: 2000 A⁰ 1000 cm 5000 A⁰ None of these None 37. Direction of propagation of light ray is: Along the wavefront Perpendicular to wave front At the angle of 45⁰ to the plane of wavefront None of these None 38. One angstorm is equal to: 10⁻⁶ m 10⁻⁸ nm 10⁻¹⁰ nm 10⁻⁸ cm None 39. The carpuscular nature of light was given by: Huygen Maxwell Newton Thomas Young None 40. The shape of wave fronts depend upon: Shape of medium Viscosity of medium Density of medium All of above None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-10 Optical Instruments Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-10 Optical Instruments" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Any transparent medium bounded by one or two spherical surface ,is called: Lens Mirror Prism None of these None 2. A lens which is thicker from middle and thinner from edges called: Convex lens Concave lens Convex mirror Concave Mirror None 3. The ratio of the size of image to the size of object is called: Magnification Angular magnification Classification None of these None 4. The ratio of the angle subtended by the image as seen through the optical device to that angle subtended by the object at the eye is called: Linear magnification Angular magnification Tabulation Calculation None 5. A point where the incident rays of light converge or appears to diverge after passing through the lens is called: Aperture Focus Optical center Pole of lens None 6. The distance of near point from the eye is about: 25 cm 25 m 10 cm 10 m None 7. The distance between the principal focus and the optical centre of the lens is called: Aperture Focal length Radius of curvature None of these None 8. When an object is brought from a far point to the focal point of convex lens, the size of image is: Unchanged Decreasing Increasing All of Above None 9. The apparent size of the object depends upon its actual size and angle subtended by it at the: Eye Face Mouth Near point at eye None 10. The unit of power of lens is: Newton Watt Dioptre None of above None 11. The focal length of convex lens is: Positive Negative Positive and negative None of these None 12. If an object is placed in front of convex lens then the image will be: Real and erect Real and inverted Virtual and erect Virtual None 13. If an object is placed at 2F from convex, lens the image is located behind the lens: Between lens and focus At 2 F Between F and 2 F At the focus None 14. Magnification of a lens is positive when the image is: Real and inverted Virtual and inverted Real and erect None of these None 15. The magnifying power of a simple microscope is: M = 1+f/d M =1+d/f M = 1=fd None of these None 16. The convex lens used in compound microscope as objective has focal length: Large Short Same as eye-piece None of these None 17. If a single convex lens is placed close to the eye then it can be used as: Simple microscope Compound microscope Spectrometer Telescope None 18. The magnifying power of a compound microscope is: Magnification of objective magnification of eye-piece Magnification of objective + Magnification of eye-piece Magnification of object x Magnification of eye-piece Magnification of object - Magnification of eye-piece None 19. The eye-piece of a compound microscope acts as: Converging mirror Converging lens Diverging mirror Diverging lens None 20. If focal length of objective is increased: Magnifying power of compound microscope decreased Magnifying power of astronomical telescope increases Length of astronomical telescope increases All of above None 21. A simple astronomical telescope consists of: Two convex lens Two concave lens One convex and one concave None of these None 22. The image of a distant object viewed through telescope appears: Larger Brighter Smaller Dull None 23. The distance between the objective and eye- piece of a telescope in normal adjustment is: f₀ - fₑ f₀ + fₑ fₑ - f₀ None of these None 24. The magnifying power of an instrument is expressed in: Radians Degrees No units None of these None 25. Lenses of focal lengths 100 cm and 5 cm are used as objective and eye-piece of an astronomical telescope, its length for normal adjustment is: 95 cm 105 cm 20 cm None of these None 26. An optical instrument used to study the properties of light: Spectrometer Simple microscope Telescope None of these None 27. The component of the spectrometer which consists of a fixed metallic tube with a convex lens at one end and adjustable slit is called: Telescope Collimator Turntable Grating None 28. The scientist who correctly measured the speed of light was: Einstein Michelson Gallileo Newton None 29. The speed of light in vacuum or in air is: 3 x 10¹⁰ m/s 3 x 10⁷ m/s 3 x 10⁹ m/s 3 x 10⁸ m/s None 30. Alexander Bell invented advice known as: Photo phone Telescope Spectrometer Microscope None 31. For glass air boundary, the value of critical angle is: 41⁰ 41.5⁰ 41.8⁰ 41.2⁰ None 32. In Michelson's experiment, the equation used to find the speed of light is: c = 16 fd c = 16 f/d c =16 d/f c= fd/16 None 33. The focal length "f" and radius of curvature are related by: f = 2R R = 2f R = f None of the above None 34. In compound microscope the magnification of object is M₀ and magnification of eyepiece is Mₑ. The magnifying power of compound microscope is: M₀ + Mₑ M₀ x Mₑ Mₑ - Mₑ M₀ / Mₑ None 35. In vacuum light travels at a speed of 3 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹, what is the speed of light in glass of refractive index 1.5? 1.5 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹ 2 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹ 3 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹ 4.5 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹ None 36. An object is placed between two parallel mirrors. The number of image formed is: 2 4 8 Infinite None 37. What will be the colour of the sky as seen from the Earth if there were no atmosphere? Black Blue Orange Red None 38. An object of 2 cm tall is placed 15 cm from concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. How far is the image from the mirror? 10 cm - 20 cm -30 cm -40 cm None 39. An observer moves towards a stationary plane mirror at a speed of 4 ms⁻¹, with what speed will what speed will his image move towards him? 2 ms⁻¹ 4 ms⁻¹ 8 ms⁻¹ image will stay at rest None 40. A spectrometer is used to measure: refractive index of material of glass prism Deviation of light by a glass prism Wavelength of light All of above None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-11 Heat & Thermodynamics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-11 Heat & Thermodynamics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The degree of hotness or coldness of an object is called: Temperature Chemical energy Mechanical energy Heat None 2. The direction of the flow of heat between two bodies depends upon: Thermal conductivity Internal energies Temperature Specific heat None 3. A relationship between the mechanical work and heat energy has derived by: Joule Newton Kelvin Einstein None 4. The pressure exerted by the gas molecules on the walls of vessels due to: Continuous collision of its molecules Free motion of its molecules Momentum of its molecules All of above None 5. The value of Boltzman gas constant K is: 1.38 x 10⁻³⁴ J.K⁻¹ 1.38 x 10⁻²³ JK⁻¹ 1.38 x 10⁻³² J-K⁻¹ 1.38 x 10⁻²⁷ J . K⁻¹ None 6. Pressure of an ideal gas in terms of its density can be written as: P=pv² P=1/3 pv² P=2/3 pv² P=1/2 pv² None 7. In the average translational kinetic energy of the molecule show itself in the form of: Viscosity Density Velocity Temperature None 8. At constant temperature the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure is called: Charle's law Boyle's Heat law None of these None 9. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volume of all gasses contains the same number of kilo moles is called: Charle's law Boyle's law Avogadro's law Law of pressure None 10. The value of universal gas constant R is: 8314 J / mole-K 83.10 j/mole-k 8314 J / K-mole K 8.314 J/K mole-k None 11. Add constant pressure the graph between volume and absolute temperature is: Parabola Straight line Hyperbola None of these None 12. For a gas obeying boyle's law if pressure is doubled, the volume of a gas becomes: One half No change Double None of these None 13. The pressure of a gas is directly proportional to: Root means square velocity of molecules Mean square velocity of the molecules Mean velocity of the molecules None of these None 14. If some quantity of water put in a shallow vessel allowed to evaporate, its temperature: Decreases Increases Remains constant None of these None 15. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon only on its: Pressure Volume Temperature All of above None 16. The sum of total energy of all the molecules of a substance is called: Heat energy Efficiency Internal energy Power None 17. The principles which deals with heat energy and its transformation into mechanical energy is called: Laws of thermodynamics Law of Conservation of Mass Law of conservation of energy First Law of Thermodynamics None 18. In thermodynamics, the change in the internal energy depends upon: The initial state of temperature only The final state of temperature only The initial and final states of temperature None of these None 19. The process under which the system undergoes a change of state at constant volume is called: Adiabatic process Isothermal process Isochoric process Isobaric process None 20. That process in which no heat enters or leaves the system is called: Isooric process Isothermal process Isobaric process Adiabatic process None 21. A system in which there is no transfer of mass and energy across the boundaries called: An isolated system An open system A closed system None of these None 22. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 KG of a substance through 1 ⁰C is called: Specific heat Molar heat capacity Heat of fusion All of above None 23. The difference between Cₚ and Cᵥ is equal to: Molar gas constant Boltzmann constant Universal gas constant None of these None 24. The amount of heat energy required to evaporize one KG of a liquid at its boiling without change of temperature is called: Heat of fusion Heat capacity Hate of vaporization Latent heat of vaporization None 25. A process which can be retraced in reverse order without produce any change in the environment is called: Irreversible process Reversible process Isothermal process Adiabatic process None 26. Which one is the example of reversible process: Compton Melting ice Heat engine Work done against friction None 27. An ideal heat engine has 100% percent efficiency only if its exhaust temperature: Less than input temperature Greater than input temperature Equal to input temperature OK None 28. The statement, It is impossible for a self- acting machine to transfer heat from a lower to higher temperature refers to: 1st Law of Thermodynamics Law of Conservation of Mass 2nd Law of thermodynamics None of these None 29. The efficiency of heat engine whose lower temperature is 17 ⁰C and the high temperature of 200 ⁰C is: 35 % 80 % 90 % 25 % None 30. An engine which convert heat energy into useful work up to 35% to 40% is: Petrol engine Heat engine Deisel engine Carnot engine None 31. In carnot engine at the end of cyclic path, the temperature working substance is: Zero Less than initial temperature Greater than initial temperature Equal to initial temperature None 32. The concept of entropy was introduced by the scientist: R Clausius Newton Kelvin Carnot Sadi None 33. Four stroke petrol engine has the following process: 1 4 2 3 None 34. The Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales will have the same reading when the temperature is: 70⁰ -80⁰ -40⁰ 120⁰ None 35. Mercury thermometer was constructed by: Rutherford Ampere Lord Kelvin Einstein None 36. A gas which strictly obeys the gas laws under all conditions of temperature and pressure is called: Real gas Ideal gas Inert gas None of these None 37. If the volume of a given mass of a gas is doubled at constant temperature then the density of gas becomes: Remains constant Half Double None of these None 38. Which of the following does not have the same units: Work Heat Kinetic energy Power None 39. Consider volume in a cylinder is 4 c.c. If the position is kept fixed and gas is heated from 10 ⁰C to 15 ⁰C then the work done is: 4.3 J 20 J 15 J Zero None 40. Some gas at 300 K is enclosed in a container. Now the container is placed on a fast moving train. While the train is in motion, the temperature of the gas? Rises above 300 ⁰K Falls below 300 ⁰K Remains unchanged Becomes unsteady None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-12 Electrostatics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-12 Electrostatics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The value of K depends upon: Charges System of units and medium The distance between charges Nature of medium None 2. The value of K in SI system of units: 9 x 10⁹ Nm² / c² 9 x 10¹⁰ Nm² / c² 9 x 10⁻⁹ Nm² / c² 9 x 10⁹ NC / m² None 3. Metals are good conductors of electricity because they have: Large number of bounded electrons Small number of electrons Large number of free electrons Small number of free electrons None 4. The number of electrons in one coulomb charge is equal to: 6.2 x 10¹⁸ electrons Zero electrons 1.6 x 10⁻²² electrons 6.2 x 10²¹ electrons None 5. A substance contains: Only positive charge Only negative charge Both positive and negative charge None of above None 6. The minimum charge on any electron be less than: 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C 3.2 x 10⁻¹⁹ C 1.8 x 10⁻¹⁹ C 9.1 x 10⁻¹⁹ C None 7. A metallic hallow sphere of 8 cm diameter is charged with 4 x 10⁻⁸ c. The potential on its surface will be: 90 volts 9 volts 9000 volts 900 volts None 8. In case of two identical placed at certain distance, the electric lines of force are: Curved Straight lines Both A and B None of these None 9. Selenium is: Conductor Insulator in the dark are becomes conductor when exposed to light An insulator None of these None 10. The number of electric field lines passing through a certain element of a area is called: Electric lines of force Electric intensity Electric flux None of these None 11. The space around the charge within which other charges are influenced by it is called: Electric field Magnetic field Electric flux Electric intensity None 12. The electric field lines emerge from the charges in: Three dimensions Two dimensions One dimension All of above None 13. The electric lines of force determine the strength of an: Gravitational field Constant field Magnetic field Electric field None 14. Electric flux is a: Vector quantity Scalar quantity Both A and B None of above None 15. The surface charge density is defined as: Charge per unit volume Charge per unit mass Mass per unit area Charge per unit area None 16. Work done in moving a charge [unit positive charge] from one point to another against the electric field is measure of: Electric potential Potential difference Electric intensity Absolute potential None 17. If an electron of charge 'e' is accelerated a potential difference V it will acquire energy: Ve v/e e/v Ve² None 18. In a region where the electric field is zero the electric potential is always: Negative Positive Zero Constant None 19. If a oil droplet between two oppositely charged parallel plates is suspended then: F𝓰 > Fₑ F𝓰 < Fₑ F𝓰 = Fₑ None of these None 20. If electric and gravitational force on an electron placed in a uniform electric field balance each other than electric intensity will be: E = q/mg E = mg/q E = q/qm E = m/qg None 21. The relative permitivity of air is: 79.5 1.006 1.06 1.0006 None 22. The voltage across the capacitor at any instant can be obtained by: Dividing q by C Dividing C by q Multiply q by C None of these None 23. The potential at a point suited at a distance of 50 cm from a charge of 5 uc is: 9 x 10⁴ volts 9 x 10² volts 9 x 10⁻² volts 9 x 10⁻⁴ volts None 24. A charge of 0.10 C accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 Volt acquires K.E: 100 J 200 J 100 eV 400 J None 25. The charge time of the capacitor depends open: R x C R/C R x L RL/C None 26. The energy supplied in charging a capacitor resides after the charging in: The battery The electric field The magnetic field None of these None 27. A system of two equal and opposite charges separated by a small distance is called: A dipole Inductance A capacitor A condenser None 28. If a dielectric is placed between the plates of capacitor, its capacitance will be: Increase Decrease Becomes double None of these None 29. If the distance between two charges is doubled, the force between them: Four times One fourth Half Remain same None 30. The number of electrons in one coulomb charge: Zero 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ 6.2 x 10⁻¹⁹ 6.2 x 10¹⁸ None 31. A force of 0.01 N is exerted on a charge 1.2 x 10⁻⁵ C at a certain point. The electric field at that point is: 1.2 x 10⁴ N/C 1.2 x 10⁴ C/N 8.3 x 10² N/C 8.3 x 10⁻² N/C None 32. Two metallic sphere of radius 2 cm and 4 cm get equal quantity of charge. Which has greater surface charge density? 2ⁿᵈ sphere Both have same First sphere None of these None 33. The number of lines per unit area passing perpendicular through an area is called: Flux Electric intensity Both A and B None of these None 34. The apparatus used by coulomb is: Cavendish Torsion balance Physical balance Gold leaf electroscope None 35. Capacitance of capacitor is increases by decreasing: Area of plates Medium Distance between plates None of these None 36. An electric field cannot deflect: X-rays a-particles B-particles None of these None 37. In the xerographic machine, the heart of machine drum is made of: Ceramic Semi-conductor Strong Plastic Aluminum None 38. If a charge body moved against the electric field it will gain: Potential energy Kinetic energy Mechanical energy Electric potential energy None 39. The circuit having combined components resistance and capacitor is called: R-L circuit R-C circuit R-L.C circuit R-I circuit None 40. Capacitance and potential difference are: Directly proportional Equal Constant Inversely proportional None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-13 Current Electricity Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-13 Current Electricity" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The conventional current is due to the flow of: Atoms and molecules Positive charge Negative charge Both [b] and [c] None 2. When a pot difference of 4 Volt is applied across resistance, 10 J of energy is converted. Find charge flows: 0.20 C 2.5 C 5.0 C 10.0 C None 3. Electric heater is the effect of electric current: Heating effect Chemical effect Magnetic effect None of the above None 4. If a charge Q flows through any cross section of the conductor in time t, the current I is: I = Qt I = Q/t I = t/Q I = Q²/t None 5. A constant temp, the current flowing through our conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across its sand is called: Charles law Amperes law Coulombs law Ohm's law None 6. The magnitude of the drift velocity is of the order of: 10⁻³ m/s 10⁻⁴ m/s 10⁻⁶ m/s 10³ m/s None 7. When same current passes for the same time through a thick and thin wire: No heat is produced in wire More heat is produced in thin wire More heat is produced in thick wire None of these None 8. The effect of bends in a wire on its electrical resistance are: Zero Larger Smaller None of these None 9. Went two spherical conducting balls at different potentials are joined by metallic wire, after some times, potential difference will be: Same Zero Different None of these None 10. Heating effect of current is used in: Electric Kittle Electric motor Electric taster Both A and C None 11. The vessel containing the two electrodes and the certain liquid is known: Electrolyte Thermometer Voltammeter None of these None 12. The magnitude of magnetic effects depends upon: Quality of electricity passed through the liquid Colour of the liquid Nature of the liquid Both A and C None 13. The opposition offered by the conductor to the flow of current is called: Conductance Inductance Resistance None of the above None 14. The SI unit of resistivity is: Ohm-m Ohm-m² Ohm-m³ Ohm None 15. The reciprocal of resistivity is: Conductivity Permitivity Resistance Voltage None 16. The study of conductance of Electricity through liquids is known as: Electrolysis Resistivity Conductivity None of above None 17. Which of the following substance has got positive temperature coefficient of resistance: Copper Aluminum Silver All of above None 18. To use a rehostat as variable resistor, the terminals which are inserted in a circuit are: Fixed terminal A and sliding contact C Both fixed terminals A and B Fixed terminal B and sliding contact C All of above None 19. A temperature changes converts changes of temperature into: Electrical voltage Light signals Sound signals All of above None 20. When the current is being drawn from the battery: V = E + Ir is applied V = E - Ir is applied It is being discharged Both a and c None 21. The quantity having the same unit as that emf is: Energy Momentum Potential difference Current None 22. A voltmeter can read the correct potential difference only when the current drawn by it from the cell is: Smaller Greater Zero None of these None 23. The unknown emf Ex, can be found by using potentiometer by formula: Ex = R/r x E Ex = E r/R Ex = l/L x E Both B and C None 24. The resistance of a conductor through which a current of one ampere is flowing when a potential difference across its ends is one volt is: One volt One ohm One ampere One coulomb None 25. When the temperature of a conductor is raised, its resistance: Remains the same Always increase Always decrease None of these None 26. The resistance of the conductor increases due to rise of temp of a conductor because collision cross- section of the atoms: Remain unchanged Decreases Increases None of the above None 27. The Fractional change in resistivity per unit original resistivity per Kelvin in temperature is known as: Temperature coefficient of resistance Temperature coefficient of resistivity Temperature coefficient of conductivity None of these None 28. The three resistor of resistance 2,3 and 6 Ohms are connected in parallel then their equivalent resistance is: 11.0 ohms 1.0 ohms 5.0 ohms 70 ohms None 29. Super conductor has temperature coefficient. +ve -ve Neutral None of the above None 30. Resistance and resistivity of a substance: Decrease in rise of temperature Increase with rise of temperature Remains same at every temperature None of the above None 31. The electrical power in mathematical form can be expressed as: P = I² R P = I x V P = V²/R All of above None 32. If both fixed as well as the sliding contact of a rheostat are connected in a circuit, it is to be used as: Variable resistor Power supply Potential divider None of above None 33. If the resistor is traversed in the direction of current, the potential change are: Negative Zero Constant Positive None 34. When the Wheatstone bridge is balanced, the galvanometer shows zero deflection because: Both the terminals of the galvanometer are at the same potential Both terminals of the galvanometer have maximum potential The resistance of galvanometer becomes zero The resistance of galvanometer becomes maximum None 35. Which one of the following instrument can measure the unknown resistance with sufficient accuracy: Potentiometer Slide Wire bridge Galvanometer All of the above None 36. An instrument which can measure potential without drawing any current is called: Voltmeter Potentiometer Galvanometer Ammeter None 37. The algebraic sum of potential changes for a closed circuit is zero according to: Kirchhoff's second rule Kirchhoff's first rile Ampere's law Joul's law None 38. The temp coefficient of resistance is positive for: Aluminum Germanium Carbon None of the above None 39. In a closed circuit, the emf and internal resistance of a cell are E and r is respectively. If the external resistance in the circuit is R then the Ohm's law has the form: I = E/R I = E/Rr I = E/r I = E/R+r None 40. There are three equal resistances. How many different combination, of these resistance are possible: Six Three One Two None 41. Which one of the following is the unit of potential gradient: Volt x Metre Volt / Amp Volt / Metre Volt / Amp² None 42. In potentiometer, the length of its wire is doubled, the accuracy in determining the null point will: Decrease Increase Remains unchanged None of the above None 43. Secondary cells are: Non- chargeable Rechargeable Both A and B Like primary cells None 44. A wire of resistors R is cut into two equal parts, its resistance becomes R/2, what happens to resistivity: Double Same Half One fourth None 45. The product of resistance and conductance is: 1 Resistivity Conductance Zero None 1 out of 9 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-14 Electromagnetism Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-14 Electromagnetism" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Who discovered a relation between magnetic and electric field: Lenz Faraday Orested None of above None 2. The force acting on one metre length of the conductor placed at right angle to the magnetic field is called Magnetic field Magnetic induction Force None of the above None 3. Tesla is the unit for measuring: Magnetic intensity Magnetic induction Magnetic force None of the above None 4. When some compass needles are placed on a cardboard along a circle with the center at the wire, they will: Set themselves tangential to the circle Points in the direction of N-S Points in the direction of E-W None of these None 5. Magnetic force acting on unit positive charge moving perpendicular to the magnetic field with a unit velocity is known as: Magnetic induction Magnetic flux Magnetic field density None of these None 6. Magnetic field is a: Scalar quantity Vector quantity Both A and B None of these None 7. A current is passed through a straight conductor, the magnetic field produced around it. The magnetic lines of force are: Straight Circular Parabolic None of these None 8. The magnetic force experienced by a charge particle moving in a magnetic field will be minimum when it moves: Parallel to magnetic field Anti-parallel to magnetic field Perpendicular to magnetic field None of the above None 9. The unit of magnetic induction B is: Coulomb Ampere Coulomb/Ampere Weber/m² None 10. The magnetic field inside the solenoid can be increased by: Increasing number of turns Decreasing the current Increasing current Both A and C None 11. The strength of magnetic field is measured in SI units: Am/N Nm/A N/Am N None 12. If there are n charge carriers per unit volume than the number of charge in a segment of wire of length L and A is: AL/n n A/L n AL n L/A None 13. When the charged particle is projected in the direction parallel to the magnetic field, then force experienced will be: qvB Maximum Zero None of these None 14. When an electron enters at a right angle to the magnetic field, the magnitude of velocity: Remains constant Decreases Increases None of these None 15. If the magnetic flux is expressed in weber, then the magnetic induction can be expressed as: Weber/m Weber/m² Weber/m³ m/Weber None 16. The magnetic field at a point due to current carrying conductor is directly proportional to: Current flows through the conductor Distance from the conductor Resistance of the conductor Thickness of the conductor None 17. If a moving electron deflected side ways on passing through a certain region of space, can we predict the presence of magnetic field: No Yes Maximum None of the above None 18. The total number of magnetic lines of force passing normally through a given area is called: Magnetic flux Flux density Self induction Mutual induction None 19. The magnetic field at the middle of the solenoid is: Uniform and strong Uniform Strong Weak None 20. In particle velocity method, the selected speed is equal to: V = BE V = E/B V = E/F None of the above None 21. Magnetic flux density at a point due to the current carrying conductor determined by: Faraday's law Ampere's law Flemming's law Gauss's law None 22. In case of galvanometer, the magnitude of deflecting torque is given as: BINA cos a BIN cos a NIA cos a None of the above None 23. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into ammeter by connecting: A low resistance in series A low resistance in parallel A high resistance in series None of these None 24. The device used for displaying the waveform of given voltage is: A.C generator Cathode ray oscilloscope D.C generator Galvanometer None 25. CRO works by deflecting the beam of electron as they pass through: Uniform magnetic field Uniform electric field between two sets of parallel plates Non- uniform magnetic field None of these None 26. The anode in CRO are at: Lower potential w.r.t cathode Higher potential w.r. to cathode Same potential as cathode None of these None 27. The voltage applied across Y- plate deflects the beam: Vertically on the screen Horizentically on the screen Both A and B None of these None 28. In CRO, the output wave form of time base generator is: Circular Square Sinusoidal Saw-toothed None 29. By means of waveform displayed on the screen of CRO, we can measure: Frequency of voltage Voltage Phase of voltage All of the above None 30. What is emitted by the hot metal filament in a cathode ray oscilloscope: Electron X-plates Protons Y-plats None 31. What is the current in a wire of 10 cm long at right angle to a magnetic field of 0.5 T when force acting on the wire is 5 N: I = 10 A I = 50 A I= 500 A I = 100 A None 32. Four accurate measurement of current through a circuit, the resistance of ammeter should be: Very small Very high Neither small nor high None of the above None 33. In CRO when beam of electrons falls on a screen it makes a visible spot because the screen is: Rough Fluorescent Polished Clear None 34. To make the field stronger near the coil of the galvanometer, we place inside the coil a: Soft iron cylinder Soft steel cylinder Soft copper cylinder None of these None 35. Such a galvanometer in which the coil comes to rest quickly after the current passed through it is called: Stable galvanometer Sensitive galvanometer Both A and B None of these None 36. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, we connect with it a: Shunt resistance Low value parallel Low value by pass resistor All of the above None 37. The resistance of shunt is: Verge large Very small Both A and B None of these None 38. Which of the following is correct? 1 T = 10³ G 1 T = 10⁴ G 1 T = 10⁻⁴ G None of these None 39. If an electron enters the magnetic field at right angle from left and B is into paper, electron will be deflected: Upward Downward No deflection None of these None 40. A Solenoid 15 cm, long has 300 turns, I= 5A, B= 1.3 x 10⁻² wbm⁻² 1.3 x 10² wb m⁻² 1.3 x 10⁻² G 1.3 x 10⁻² wb None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-15 Electromagnetic Induction Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-15 Electromagnetic Induction" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The induced current can be increased by: Replacing the loop by a coil Moving the loop faster Using the strong magnetic field All of the above None 2. The phenomenon by which an induced emf is produced in the conductor due to change of magnetic flux in it is called: Electromagnetism Electromagnetic induction Electric polarization All of the above None 3. In magnet- coil experiment, emf can be produced by: Motion of loop and magnet Keeping the magnet stationary and moving the coil Keeping the coil stationary and moving magnet All of the above None 4. A coil of constant area is placed in a constant magnetic field, and induced current is produced in the coil when: The coil is rotated The coil is stationary Both A and B None of these None 5. Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction has been used in the construction of: Electric generator Ammeter Galvanometer All of the above None 6. The rate of change of magnetic flux is directly proportional to induced emf is called: Lenz law Faraday's law Oersted law None of them None 7. The direction of induced current is always so as to oppose the change which causes the current, this is the statement of: Lenz' law Faraday's law Ampere's law Coulomb law None 8. When we study the phenomenon mutual induction between two coils, the primary coil consists of: A rheostat and battery A rheostat and galvanometer Galvanometer only None of these None 9. If the current in the coil itself is increased by rheostat, the emf induced will be: Opposite to that of battery In the same direction at that of battery Both A and B None of these None 10. A coil of wire is also called: Insulator Semi-conductor Inductor All of above None 11. Energy stored per unit volume inside a long solenoid is known as: Energy density Power density Energy Surface charge density None 12. The practical illustration of the phenomenon of mutual induction in: Transformer D.C. dynamo A.C generator None of these None 13. The phenomenon of producing emf in a coil due to the change of current in itself is called: Self induction Mutual induction Inductance Both A and B None 14. The self induction does not depend upon: Core material Weight of coil Number of turns of the coil Area of coil None 15. The ratio of the emf in the secondary coil to the rate of change of current in the primary coil is known as: Mutual induction Self induction Mutual inductance Both A and C None 16. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2A. The energy stored in its magnetic field is: E = 005 J E = 10 J E = 0.1 J E = 50 J None 17. An electric motor converts: Mechanical energy into electrical energy Electrical energy into mechanical energy Magnetic energy into mechanical energy None of the above None 18. Alternating emf is produced by rotating a coil of wire in: Electric field Magnetic field Conservative field Gravitational field None 19. The only difference between construction of D.C generator and A.C generator is that of: Commutator Coil Carbon brushes Magnetic field None 20. Who invented commutator: William Black William Smith William Sturgoen Mosley None 21. Energy stored per unit volume inside the solenoid is called: Mass density Energy density Charge density Volume density None 22. For the use of an electric lamp of low voltage and A.C main of high voltage, we use the device called: Resistor Rheostat Transformer Solenoid None 23. A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is moved with speed of 7 m/s perpendicular to the magnetic field 0.9 Wb/m². The induced emf across the conductor is: 1.26 volt 25.2 volt 2.52 volt 5.04 volt None 24. If the number of turn in a coil is increased metallic ring to 3 times then its initial number, then the magnetic flux is linked with is: Becomes one third of its initial value Remains unchanged Becomes nine times of its initial value Increased by three times None 25. When a current carrying conductor placed in an external magnetic field experience a force. The device whose working based on this principle is: Electric bell Electric motor Dynamo None of these None 26. To set up voltage the number of turns in the secondary should be: Less than the number of turns in the primary Greater than the number of turns in the primary Equal the number of turns in the primary Infinite None 27. The coil from which the power is delivered to the circuit is called: Primary coil Secondary coil Field coil None of these None 28. To improve the efficiency of a transformer: Insulation should be perfect Resistance of both should be least Core should be laminated All of above None 29. The turn ratio of setup transformer is the voltage ratio and current ratio respectively will be: 25,50 50,0.02 0.02,50 50 volt, 0.02 A None 30. Which one of the following materials is more suitable for making cores of Transformer? Soft iron Copper Nickel Aluminum None 31. A coil of 10 cm x 20 cm having 40 turns in making 18.00 rev/min in a magnetic field 0.5 wb/m². The peak value of induced emf is: 113 volt 226 volt 339 volt 452 volt None 32. A loop of wire is suspended between poles of magnet with its plane parallel to pole faces. What happens if A.C is used? Coil oscillate Coil rotate Coil remain at rest Both a and b None 33. The phenomenon in which changing current in one coil induces an e.m.f. in another coil is called: Mutual inductance Self induction Mutual induction All of these None 34. If Nₛ/Nₚ = 50, Iₚ = 20A, Vₚ = 220 V, Vₛ =? 1100 V 11000 V 500 V 1000 V None 35. In a step down transformer, the input voltage is 200 voltage and the output voltage is 5 volts the turn ratio of the transformer is: 1:20 1:40 20:1 40:1 None 36. The main cause of power loss in transformers is: Hysteresis Eddy current Both a and b None of these None 37. The coils of a transformer are: Magnetically linked Electrically linked Both A and B None of these None 38. A transformer has: Two coil Only one coil Works on the principle of mutual induction None of these None 39. The output of a dynamo using a split ring commutator is: Half wave rectified voltage A.C D.C Fluctuating D.C None 40. The windings of an electromagnet used in motors are called: Armature coil Primary coil Secondary coil Field coils None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-16 Alternating Current Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-16 Alternating Current" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The value of capacitive reactance is given by: X𝒸 = VI X𝒸 = V/I X𝒸 = I/V All of above None 2. Alternating current or emf measuring instruments measures its: r.m.s value Peak value Average value None of the above None 3. One complete set of positive and negative value of alternating quantities is called: Frequency Time period Amplitude Cycle None 4. The waveform of alternating voltage is the graph between: Current and time Voltage and time Voltage and current Voltage along y- axis and time along x -axis None 5. The average value of alternating voltage over a complete cycle is: Zero 0.7 Vₘₐₓ 0.707 Vₘₐₓ None of these None 6. The basic circuit element in a D.C circuit is: An inductor A resistor A capacitor None of these None 7. The maximum current I₀ passing through a resistance R connected with an alternating voltage source V₀ is given by: I₀ = R x V₀ I₀ = V₀/R I₀ = R/V₀ I₀ = V₀ x R None 8. At what frequency 1 henry inductance offer same impendence as 1uF capacitor: 450 Hz 512 Hz 1 KHz 159 Hz None 9. The measure of the opposition offered by a capacitor to the flow of A.C is called: Reactance Resistance Impedance Capacitance None 10. The reactance of a coil depends upon: Inductance of the coil Capacitance of the coil Thickness of the coil None of these None 11. If frequency f is in Hz and inductance L is in milli henry, then Xₗ is in: milli ohm kilo ohm ohm None of these None 12. Which of the following statement is correct of for an A.C circuit: The current depends upon the components connected in circuit The current lags the voltage by a phase angle of 90⁰ The current leads the voltage by a phase angle of 90⁰ The current and voltage are in same phase None 13. The unit of impedance is: Farad Henry Tesla Ohm None 14. The highest value raised by the voltage or current in one cycle is known as: Peak value Minimum value Average value Zero value None 15. With increase of frequency of A.C supply, the inductive reactance is: Decreases Increases as square of frequency Remain unchanged Increases as directly to frequency None 16. In an R.L.C series circuit, the quantities which are directed opposite to each other are: X𝒸 and R X𝒸 and Xₗ X𝒸 and L Xₗ and C None 17. The positive value of current and voltage over a cycle is: Positive Zero Negative None of the above None 18. When resistance is increased in a series LCR circuit: Impedance decreases Reactance increases Phase angle increases Phase angle decreases None 19. A device that allows only the continuous flow of AC through a circuit is: Capacitor Inductor Dynamo D.C motor None 20. The impedance of a series circuit containing capacitance C, inductance L and resistance R is: R + L-1/C 1/R + L-C R + L +C None of the above None 21. If X be the reactance, Z be impedance then in a series L.C.R circuit: X² = [Z+R]² X² = [Z-R]² X² = Z² - R² X² = Z²+R² None 22. The process of combining low frequency signal with high frequency ratio waves is called: Resonance Fluctuation Modulation Amplitude None 23. The circuit in which current and voltage are in phase, the power factor is: Double Three times One Zero None 24. The peak value of alternating voltage is 423 volts, its rms value is: 300 volts 423 volts 150 volts 211.5 volts None 25. Modulation is the process of: Combining low frequency signal with carrier Separating the low frequency signal from higher frequency radio wave Combining low frequency signal with high frequency radio waves Both A and C None 26. A frequency of rotating coil of an A.C. generator is f Hz then frequency of e.m.f. produced is: 50 Hz 60 Hz f Hz None of these None 27. Slope of a horizontal line is: Zero Infinite Maximum None of these None 28. Since an inductor does not consume energy coil is used for controlling A.C. Such a coil is called: Resistor Choke Starter None of these None 29. If a glass plate is placed between plates of a capacitor, in series with a lightened bulb, the brightness of the bulb: Remains same Decreases Increases Bulb turns off None 30. Who proved that the light waves are electromagnetic? Faraday Einstein Maxwell Enderson None 31. A capacitor of a capacitance 30 uFis charged by a constant current of 10 mA. If initially capacitor is uncharged, what is time taken for potential difference across capacitor to reach 300 V? 0.9 sec. 15 sec. 1.5 x 10⁻⁵ s 0.9 x 10⁻³ s None 32. The electromagnetic spectrum contains: Radio waves X - rays Microwaves All of these None 33. Three phase supply also provides: 230 V 460 V 400 V None of these None 34. Parallel resonance circuit is also called: LC parallel Tank Rejector All of these None 35. When A.C. pass through an inductor, voltage leads the current by: Half cycle Quarter cycle Full cycle None of these None 36. For q-t graph, slope shows: Current Voltage e.m.f None of these None 37. The amplitude modulation AM transmission frequencies range from: 540 Hz to 1600 Hz 540 Hz to 1500 MHz 540 KHz to1600 KHz None of these None 38. In which of the following, the loss of energy is less: Alternating current Direct current Photoelectric current None of the above None 39. A.C varies as function of: Time Voltage Current Displacement None 40. Alternating current is one which changes in a: Magnitude Direction Magnitude as well as direction None of the above None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-17 Physics of Solids Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-17 Physics of Solids" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Amorphous solid are also called: Crystalline solid Glassy solid Soft solid Hard solid None 2. Each atom in a crystalline vibrates about a fixed point with an amplitude that: Increases with rise in temperature Decreases with rise in temperature Remains the same with the rise in temperature None of these None 3. An ordinary glass gradually soften into a paste like state before it becomes a very viscous liquid which is possible at: 900⁰ C 600⁰ C 800⁰ C 100⁰ C None 4. The temperature at which the vibration becomes so great that the structure of the crystal breaks is called: Melting point Critical temperature Boiling point None of these None 5. Examples of polymeric solids are: Plastic Ziconia NaCl Copper None 6. Ordinary glass becomes a very viscous liquid at: 600⁰C 800⁰C 300⁰C 100⁰C None 7. The ratio of applied stress to tensile strain is called: Bulk modulus Young Modulus Shear modulus None of the above None 8. When a body is subjected to some external force, deformation is produced in: Shape Length Volume Any of these None 9. A stress which decreases the length along one dimension is known as: Compressive stress Tensile stress Linear stress None of these None 10. When the specimen does not recover its original shape after the stress is removed, its behavior is called: Ductility Deformation Plasticity Elasticity None 11. A steel wire 20 mm in diameter is stretched by a force of 113 N. The tensile stress applied is: 1 MPa 10⁻⁶ N/m² 0.1 MPa 0.2 x 10⁶ Pa None 12. The force applied on a unit area to produce any change in shape, volume and length is called: Stress Strain Elasticity Plasticity None 13. The SI unit of stress is: N-S N-m⁻² N-m N None 14. The extension produced in a sample of material depends upon: Area Force Nature of material All of the above None 15. Materials have specific use depending upon their characteristics and properties such as: Hardness Conducting or magnetic Ductility All of the above None 16. Measure of deformation of body with application of stress is called: Rigidity Modulus of elasticity Elasticity Strain None 17. Any change produced in shape, volume or length when a body is subjected some external force is called: Yield point Elastic limit Deformation Plasticity None 18. A conduction band is always: Partially filled Complete filled Partially Empty Empty None 19. The theory failed to explain the complete electric behaviour of solid: Rutherford's theory Newton's theory Bohr's theory None of the above None 20. Valence band may be: Completely filled Partially filled Both A and B None of these None 21. Partially filled conduction and valence bands with a very narrow forbidden energy gap in between them shows the: Conductors Insulators Semi-conductors None of these None 22. On introducing a small amount of impurity into a pure semi-conductor, its electrical behaviour: Does not change Is changed Is changed very small Is change very large None 23. An example of acceptor impurity is: Phosphorus Indium Arsenic Silicon None 24. The doped semi-conducting materials are called: Superconductors Poor semiconductors Pure semiconductors Extrinsic semiconductors None 25. The material whose resistivity becomes zero below a certain temperature: Conductors Semiconductors Superconductors Insulators None 26. An example of intrinsic semi conductor is: Al Ge Cb Ph None 27. The first superconductor was discovered in: 1923 1917 1905 1911 None 28. Lead becomes superconductor at temperature: 12.66 K 7.2 K 3.0 K 2.5 K None 29. A metallic conductor is conduct electricity because they have large number of free: Ions Electrons Protons Dipoles None 30. In semiconductor, the holes and electrons move in: Opposite direction Same direction Perpendicular to each other None of these None 31. Recently a complex crystalline structure known as yttrium barium copper oxide [Yba₂ Cu₃ O₃] have reported to become super conductor at: 163 K 169 K 200 K 100 K None 32. An electromagnet is the combination of solenoid and a specimen of: Steal inside it Iron inside it Iron outside it Wood inside it None 33. Substances whose atoms do not form magnetic dipole are: Ferromagnetic Paramagnetic Diamagnetic All of these None 34. Ferromagnetic substance have the small regions are called: Magnets Patches Domains None of these None 35. The curie temp for Iron is about: 800⁰C 740⁰C 750⁰C 650⁰C None 36. Which of the following are example of diamagnetic substances: Antimony Cobalt Copper Both A and C None 37. The area of hysteresis loop is proportional to the work done in: Magnetizing of the substance Reversing the magnetic field Demagnetizing the substance None of these None 38. A pentaralent impurity in Si: A free electron and a free hole A free electron No free particle None 39. Which of the following has the highest elasticity? Rubber Steel Glass All None 40. Which of the following has bulk modulus? Water Gas Honey All None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-18 Electronics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-18 Electronics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Which one of the following is not semi conductor: Silicon Copper Gallium arsenide Germinium None 2. The process of doping causes the resistivity of semi conductor to: Decrease Remains constant Increase None of these None 3. Holes are exist in: Conductors Semi conductors Insulators All of the above None 4. There is no current due to holes in good electrical conductors because they have: Large forbidden energy gap No valance electron Overlapping valance and conduction band None of these None 5. The crystal of germinium or silicon in its pure form at room temperature acts as: Insulator Conductor Semi-conductor None of these None 6. The impurity in the germinium is usually in the ratio of: 1:10⁶ 1:10⁴ 1:10⁸ 1:10¹⁰ None 7. A potential difference is developed across the depletion region of P-n junction due to: Negative ions Positive ions Both positive and negative ions None of these None 8. The semi conductor diode has the property of: Two way conduction Zero conduction One way conduction Amplification None 9. Semi conductors with donor atoms and free electrons belong to the type: n p Both n and p Any of the above None 10. Which one of the following has the greatest energy gap: Conductor Semi conductor Insulator None of these None 11. The forward current through a semi-conductor diode circuit is due to: Electrons Holes Majority carriers Minority carriers None 12. In half wave rectification, the output DC voltage is obtained across the load for: The negative half cycle of input AC The positive half cycle of input AC Both the input of AC None of the above None 13. Conversion of alternating current into direct current is called: Modulation Amplification Oscillation Rectification None 14. The potential difference across depletion region in case of Ge is: 0.3 volt 0.7 volt 0.6 volt 0.8 volt None 15. The number of LEDs required to display all the digits is: Seven Five Six Eight None 16. A diode, which can turn current ON and OFF in nanosecond is called: Photo voltaic cell Light emitting diode Photo diode None of these None 17. A single photovoltaic cell produces a current of: 0.9 v 0.6 v 0.5 v 6.0 v None 18. The specially designed semi conductor diodes used as indicator lamps in electronic circuits are: The switch The light emitting diode The photodiode The solar cells None 19. When P -type of p-n junction connected to positive end and N-type of the junction connected to the negative terminal of the battery then the junction is: Revere biased Forward biased Neutral None of these None 20. If positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-type and negative terminal is connected to p- type then diode is: Forward biased Reverse biased Zero biased Not biased None 21. A transistor has: Two region One region Three region Four region None 22. The basic condition for a transistor amplifier circuit is: The base- emitter junction should be forward biased The base emitter junction should be reverse biased The base collector junction should be forward biased None of these None 23. In the transistor schematic symbol the arrow is: Located on the base Located on the collector Located on the emitter None of these None 24. The emitter and base has concentration of impurity: Less Zero Greater None of these None 25. Which one of the following device based on p-n junction: Photodiode Light emitting diode Photovoltaic cell All of the above None 26. The central region of n-p-n transistor is known as: Base Collector Emitter None of the above None 27. When light emitting diode is forward biased, it emits light of colour: Yellow Green Red All of the above None 28. The operational- amplifier is so called because it was some times used to perform mathematical operations: Chemically Electronically Electrically Mechanically None 29. To use an op-amp as an inverting amplifier, the terminal which is grounded is the: Inverting terminal Non inverting terminal Output terminal None of these None 30. The open loop gain of an op- amplifier is of the order of: 10³ 10⁴ 10⁶ 10⁵ None 31. A system which deals with quantities or variables which have only two discrete values or states is known as: Binary system Logic gate Number system Digital system None 32. A circuit which has two or more input signals and which delivers an output only when every input signal is energetic is known as: OR gate NOT gate AND gate NOR gate None 33. The gate will recognize the voltage as 1 or 0 if the voltage applied to the gate is: 3.5 volt 0.5 volt 5.5 volt 7.5 volt None 34. The gate, which performs the operation of invasion is called: NOT gate AND gate OR gate XOR gate None 35. If both the inputs given to a gate are 0 such that the output is 1 then it is: NAND gate NOR gate XN,OR gate All of these None 36. Width of depletion region is: 10⁻⁸ m 10⁻⁷ m 10⁻⁶ m 10⁻⁴ m None 37. Breakdown voltages is: 25 V 15 V 35 V 5 V None 38. In case of common emitter amplifier, phase difference between input and output: 0⁰ 120⁰ 180⁰ 90⁰ None 39. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of: Each of them increases Each of them decreases Copper increases and that of germanium decreases Copper increases and that of germanium decreases None 40. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases if electromagnetic radiation of wavelength shorter than 2066 nm is incident on it. The band gap energy[in eV] for the semiconductor is very nearly equal to: 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.2 None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-19 Dawn of Modern Physics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-19 Dawn of Modern Physics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. Which one of the following waves require a material medium for their propagation: X-rays Light waves Y-rays Sound waves None 2. A non- inertial frame of reference is that: Is always at rest Moves with some acceleration Moves with uniform velocity None of these None 3. All motions are: Uniform Relative Absolute Variable None 4. Due to relative motion of observer and the frame of reference of events time always: Dilates itself Stretches itself Both A and B None of these None 5. When the atomic particles are moving with velocities approaching that of light: Newton's laws become valid Newton's laws become invalid Relativistic effects become prominent None of these None 6. Earth orbital speed is: 30 cm/s 30 km/s 30 m/s 0.3 m/s None 7. Which one of the following physical quantities change with the relativistic speed: Length Time Mass All of above None 8. Due to the relative motion of observer and the frame of reference, time: Contracts Dilates Constant Uniform None 9. The special theory of relativity is based upon: 3 Postulates 2 postulates 4 postulates None of these None 10. If an object moves with speed of light, then its apparent length becomes: Zero Larger Smaller Infinity None 11. According to special theory of relativity, mass and energy are different quantities and: Non- inter convertible Inter convertible No change None of these None 12. At high temperature, the hot body emits the radiation of: High energy and shorter wavelength Longer wavelength and high energy Low energy and shorter wavelength Shorter wavelength None 13. The ratio of the energy E to the corresponding frequency f of the radiation emitted or absorbed is known as: Boltzman constant Steffen's constant Wien's constant Planck's constant None 14. Max Planck awarded the Nobel Prize for his discovery of energy quanta in: 1918 A.D 1920 A.D 1718 A.D 1818 A.D None 15. The electrons behave as waves because they can be: Deflected by electric field Ionize as gas Deflected by magnetic field Diffracted by crystals None 16. In Davison and Germer experiment,nickel crystal acts as : Perfect Reflector Perfect absorber Two dimensional grating Three dimensional grating None 17. The uncertainty principle is applicable only when: Momentum is measured only Position is measured only Both position and momentum are measured None of these None 18. The uncertainly in the location of a particle is equal to its de -Broglie wavelength, then uncertainly in its velocity will be equal to: 4 times its velocity Twice its velocity Half of its velocity It's velocity None 19. The process through which photons can interact with matter is: Photoelectric effect Compton effect Pair production Any of these None 20. Threshold frequency is the: Varies from metal to metal Minimum frequency below which no electron is emitted Same for all metals Both A and B None 21. When the stopping potential is applied to the anode of photos cell, no current is absorbed. This mean: The emission of photoelectrons stops The photo electrons are emitted but are reabsorbed by the photo cathode itself Both A and B None of these None 22. If the energy of photon is 10 eV and work function is 5 eV, then the a value of stopping potential will be: 50 V 2 V 5 V 15 V None 23. In photoelectric emission the energy of emitted electron is: Larger than that of photon Less than that of photon Same as that of photon None of these None 24. The velocity of the photoelectron depends upon: Intensity of incident photon Frequency of incident photon Intensity as well as frequency of incident photon None of these None 25. The study of photoelectric effect is useful for understanding: The quantum nature of matter The wave nature of matter Bohr's atomic model Structure of the nucleus None 26. The maximum number of photoelectrons released in photocell is independent of: Frequency of incident light Nature of the cathode surface Intensity of the radiations None of these None 27. The photoelectric effect is based upon the conservation of: Angular momentum Energy Momentum Mass None 28. The wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity of radiation shifts steadily towards shorter wavelength: The temperature decreases The temperature increases The temperature is constant The temperature is zero None 29. A black body becomes white at a temperature: 1300⁰ C 900⁰ C 1500⁰ C 1600⁰ C None 30. The nature of radiation emitted by a body depends upon: Mass Temperature Volume Pressure None 31. The relation between work function and maximum energy of photoelectrons was discovered by: Stefan Marely Planck Einstein None 32. Compton considered that x-rays consist of: Neutrons Protons Electrons Photons None 33. Author Holy Compton was awarded Nobel Prize in: 1927 1928 1923 1931 None 34. The process of conversion of photons into an electron and a positron is known as: Compton effect Photoelectric effect Pair production None of these None 35. The minimum energy required for the pair production is: 0.21 MeV 0.12 MeV 1.02 MeV None of these None 36. Every particle with corresponding anti-particle with: The same mass Opposite charge Different mass Both A and B None 37. Strictly speaking, the Earth is: Inertial frame of reference Non- inertial frame of reference Both A and B None of these None 38. Earth's orbital speed is: 30 km/s 30 m/s 30 km/h None None 39. The pair production occurs only when energy of photon is at least equal to: 1.02 eV 1.02 Me V 1.2 Me V All None 40. Which one of the following radiation has the strongest photon? Microwaves X-rays Y-rays None of these None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-20 Atomic Spectra Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-20 Atomic Spectra" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The first theory about the structure of an atom was introduced by: Neil Bohr Einstein Compton Rutherford None 2. Bohr was presented atomic model of hydrogen in: 1913 1919 1918 1905 None 3. The scientist who studies the spectrum of hydrogen in visible light, wavelength range was: Rydberg Bohr Balmer Paschen None 4. Balmer series lies in that region of electromagnetic wave spectrum, which is known as: Visible region Invisible region Ultraviolet region Infra-red region None 5. The process of formation of spectrum is known as: Diffraction Interference Refraction Spectroscopy None 6. Spectrum shows the number of component colour present in certain light in terms of: Frequency Energy Wavelength All of the above None 7. During the transition of electron of hydrogen atom from higher orbit to a 3rd orbit, a photon of: Paschen series is emitted Balmer series is emitted Lyman series is emitted Brakett series is emitted None 8. Which of the following is one of the spectral series of atomic hydrogen: Brockett series Balmer series P fund cities All of the above None 9. The radiation emitted from hydrogen filled discharge tube shows: Continuous Spectrum Line spectrum Band spectrum None of these None 10. In hydrogen atom which one of the following series lies in the infrared region: Lyman series Brackett series Paschen series Balmer series None 11. The longest wavelength of light which ionizes a hydrogen atom is: 912 A⁰ 0.74 A⁰ 400 A⁰ 720 A⁰ None 12. Radiation with wavelength shorter than violent is called: Ultraviolet radiation Infrared radiation Visible radiation None of these None 13. According to Rudder Ford Nuclear Model, the major constituents of the nucleus are: Neutrons and electrons Protons and positrons Neutron and protons Protons and electrons None 14. The numerical value of ground state energy of an electron in an orbit is the measure of: Excitation energy Excitation potential Ionization energy None of these None 15. If the ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, its ionization potential will be: 136.0 volt 3.0 volt 13.6 volt None of these None 16. The diameter of an atom is of the order of: 10⁻¹⁶ m 10⁻⁸ m 10⁻¹⁰ m 10¹⁰ m None 17. The value of Planck's constant is: 9 x 10⁹ Nm² C⁻² 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ J.S 9.1 x 10⁻³¹ kg 1.67 x 10⁻²⁷ kg None 18. The radius of first Bohr's orbit for hydrogen is: 0.053 nm 0.53 nm o.53 m None of these None 19. The first Bohr atom in the hydrogen atom has radius: 3.56 x 10⁻¹⁰ m 0.053 x 10⁻¹¹ m 0.53 x 10⁻¹¹ m 5.30 x 10⁻¹¹ m None 20. X- rays were discovered by: Curie Henry becquerel Rontgen None of these None 21. The transitions of electrons in the hydrogen atom result in the emission of spectral lines in the: Visible region Infrared region Ultraviolet region Any of these None 22. by CAT scans, we can detect the density difference of the order of: 1% 15% 10% 50% None 23. The maximum frequency in the spectrum from X rays tube is directly proportional to the: Number of incident electron The kinetic energy of the incident electron The soft target which can easily emit electron None of these None 24. The penetrating power of X- rays depends upon their: Frequency Applied voltage Wavelength None of these None 25. K- series of characteristic X-rays spectrum results when all the transitions of inner-shell electrons: K-shell M-shell L-shell None of these None 26. For the production of X -rays the target metal should be bombarded by: Electrons Neutrons Protons Positrons None 27. The transitions of inner shell electrons in heavy atoms give rise to the emission of: High energy of photon or X-rays High energy y- raise Low energy photons or X rays High Energy b-rays None 28. The duration of a laser pulse is 10⁻⁸ sec. The uncertainty in its energy will be: 10.500 x 10⁻²⁶ J 6.625 x 10⁻²⁸ J 6.625 x 10⁻²⁶ J 1.050 x 10⁻²⁸ J None 29. An atom can reside in excited state for: 10⁻⁸ second One second 10⁻¹⁰ second More than one second None 30. The process by which lesser beam can be used to generate three dimensional images of objects is called: Holography Geography Tomography Radiography None 31. The excited atoms returns to their ground state in: 10⁻¹⁰ sec 10⁻⁸ sec 10⁻⁶ sec 10⁻¹¹ sec None 32. Helium -Neon laser discharge tube contains neon: 82% 15% 25% 85% None 33. The idea of laser device was first introduced by C.H Townes and Authers Schowlan is: 1972 1965 1958 1913 None 34. The branch of physics in which laser is studied: Optics Photonics Plasma None of these None 35. For shortest wavelength radiation in the Balmer series the value of n is: 2 3 Infinity 5 None 36. Laser can be made by creating: Population inversion Metastable state Assembly All of the above None 37. Operation of laser depends upon: The existence of atoms in metastable state The existence of atoms in ground state The existence of atoms in excited state None of these None 38. Different types of lasers are: Two Three Five None of these None 39. The X- rays exhibit the phenomenon of: Diffraction Interference Polarization All of the above None 40. Quality of x- rays depends upon: Accelerating voltage Filament current Material of the target Both A and C None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up CH-21 Nuclear Physics Welcome To Your Quiz "CH-21 Nuclear Physics" Click on "Start Quiz" To Continue... 1. The electron was discovered by J.J Thomson by passing an electric discharge through: A liquid A solid A gas at low pressure A gas at high pressure None 2. Chadwick discovered neutron by the study of scattering of a -particles from: Nitrogen Oxygen Gold foil Beryllium None 3. In the unit of unified mass scale, The mass of an electron is: 0.000554 u 0.0000554 u 1,007276 u 1.0086654 u None 4. Isotopes of hydrogen are: Protium Deutrium Tritium All of these None 5. The energy required to breaks up helium nuclear into two protons and two neutron is: 28.2 eV 28.2 KeV 28.2 Mev 28.2 uev None 6. A particle having the mass of electron and the charge of proton is called a: Photon Nucleons Positron Antiproton None 7. Atoms of an element whose atomic number are the same but have different mass numbers are called: Isomers Isotones Isotopes None of these None 8. For an atom having atomic mass A and atomic number Z, the number of neutrons in the nucleus is: A + Z A-Z Z None of these None 9. The amount of energy required to break the nucleus is called its: Binding energy Potential and kinetic energy Atomic energy Neuclear energy None 10. The binding energy of deutron is: 22.22 Mev 2.224 Mev 0.224 Mev 20.2 Mev None 11. When a nucleus emits an a- particle, its mass number drops by: 1 3 2 4 None 12. Marie curie and pierre curie discovered two new radioactive elements which are: Polonium and radium Radium and crypton Platinum and radium Uranium and Radium None 13. The distance at which the radioactive particle comes to rest after emitting from a source is called: Stopping distance Range Distancce All of the above None 14. Which one of the following is not affected by electric or magnetic field: Proton Electrons y-rays x-rays None 15. The time taken for a radioactive element to decay to half of its original number of atoms is called: Half life of the material Decay life of the material Average life of material None of these None 16. If we have No number of atoms of any radioactive element, then after 4 half life's, the number of atoms left behind are: 1/16 No 1/4 No 1/8 No None of these None 17. When a certain radiation passes through matters it lose energy due to: Ionization of material atoms due to direct collision Ionization of material atoms due to electrostatic attraction Excitation of material atoms Any of these None 18. The process in which a heavy nucleus is broken into two lighter nuclei with the release of energy is called: Nuclear fusion Nuclear fission Chain reaction None of these None 19. The product of the fission reaction of uranium name barium and crypton have a total mass equal to: 1.96 Mev 0.67 Mev 0.9 Mev 0.97 Mev None 20. The total energy transferred to a body by means of radiation is measured is units of: Rontegns Rutherford's Curies None of these None 21. The process in which two or more lighter nuclei combine together to form heavier nuclei with release of energy is called: Nuclear fission Nuclear fusion Chain reaction None of these None 22. The substances which slow down the speed of neutron produced during a fission reaction are called: Moderators Retardants Both A and B None of these None 23. Certain radiation detector makes use of the fact that super saturated vapors condense preferentially on ions this type of detector is called: Gorger counter Wilson cloud chamber Solid state detector None of these None 24. In G.M, counter, the cylinder is dilled with a mixture of gasses: Containing Ne and Br Containing organ and alcohol Both A and B None of these None 25. In solid state detector, the reverse bias is applied through the two: Conducting layers of silver Conducting layers of gold Conducting layers of aluminum Conducting layers of plastic None 26. The Wilson Cloud chamber is based on the principal that supper saturated vapors condense more readily on: Ions and dust particles Dust particles Ions None of these None 27. Wilson Cloud chamber is a device used as: Path of ionizing particle Accelerating +vely charged particle Accelerating -vely charged particle None of these None 28. Geiger Muller counter is suitable for: Slow counting Fast counting Both A and B None of these None 29. The potential difference between the top and bottom of a cloud chamber is of the order of: 290 v 400 v 1 kv None of above None 30. Which one of the following detectors can occur fast and operate at low voltage: Solid state detector G.M counter Wilson Cloud Chamber None of these None 31. The capture of a neutron by a nucleus results in the formation of: Deutron Proton Helium Radio Isotope None 32. The total energy transferred to a body by means of radiation is measured in units of: Becquerels Grey Rem Roentgen None 33. The number of fundamental forces present in nature are: 3 2 5 4 None 34. During fusion of hydrogen into helium: Energy is released Energy is absorbed Mass is increased due to energy absorption Mass is reduced due to energy released None 35. The mass spectrum of naturally occurring neon, showing: 1 isotope 2 isotope 3 isotope 4 isotope None 36. The energy of photon for photoelectric effect is less than: 1 MeV 2 MeV 5 MeV 8 MeV None 37. Low level radiation effects: Less of hair Ulceration Drop white blood cells All of these None 38. In Wilson cloud chamber, if tracks are thick, straight and continuous, then particle is: a-particles b-particles y-particles All of these None 39. A pair of quark and anti quark makes a: Meson Bargon Photon Proton None 40. The SI unit of radiation dose is: Roentgen Curie Grey Rem None 1 out of 8 Thanks For Taking This Quiz - Please See Your Answers/Results Below After Entering Your Name & Email... Name Email Time's up WhatsApp Follow our WhatsApp Channel for Nursing Admissions, Job Alerts & Educational Updates. Follow YouTube Subscribe to our YouTube Channel for Nursing Admissions, Scholarships & Apploication Guides. Suscribe YouTube Subscribe Our YouTube Channel For BSN Admission, Scholarships & Apply Procedures. Suscribe WhatsApp Follow Our WhatsApp Channel For Latest Nursing Admission, Educational & Jobs Updates. Follow
