Biophysics Quiz 1 | Unit-I Essential Of Thermodynamics Your Good Name: Your College Name: Morning/Evening/Private: Email: 1. Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics? Energy cannot be created or destroyed Heat flows spontaneously from a hot object to a cold object The total energy of a system and its surroundings remains constant Entropy always decreases in a closed system None 2. Which of the following statements best defines entropy? It is a measure of disorder or randomness in a system It is a measure of the temperature of a system It is a measure of the total energy of a system It is the ability of a system to do work None 3. What does the second law of thermodynamics state? Energy cannot be created or destroyed The total energy of a system and its surroundings remains constant Entropy of an isolated system always increases Heat always flows from a colder body to a hotter body None 4. Which law of thermodynamics defines absolute zero? Zeroth Law First Law Second Law Third Law None 5. What is the relationship between the internal energy of a system and its surroundings in the first law of thermodynamics? ΔU = Q + W ΔU = Q – W ΔU = Q / W ΔU = Q×W None 6. Which process occurs at constant pressure? Isothermal Isobaric Adiabatic Isochoric None 7. Which of the following is an extensive property in thermodynamics? Temperature Volume Internal energy Both B & C None 8. The zeroth law of thermodynamics is essential for defining: Temperature Energy Work Entropy None 9. In an isothermal process, the temperature: Remains Constant Increases linearly Decreases Exponentially Changes Randomly None 10. Which term best describes the flow of energy through a living organism? Thermogenesis Bioenergetics Thermodynamics Entropy None 11. The concept of entropy applies to information theory as: The amount of disorder in a message. The total energy of a system. The probability of error. The heat content of a system. None 12. A decrease in entropy is seen in living organisms because: They obey the first law only. They operate in isolated systems. They create order internally at the expense of increased external entropy. They violate the second law of thermodynamics. None 13. Enthalpy is defined as: The heat content of a system at constant pressure. The entropy of a system. The disorder of a system. The temperature of a system. None 14. For a spontaneous reaction, the change in entropy must be: Positive Negative Zero Undefined None 15. The entropy of the universe: Remains Constant Always increases Always decreases Cycles periodically None 16. Gibbs free energy is defined as: ΔG = ΔH − TΔS ΔG = ΔS − TΔH ΔG = TΔS + ΔH ΔG = ΔH + TΔS None 17. Endergonic reactions: Have a Positive ΔG Have a Negative ΔG Are Exothermic Are Spontaneous None 18. At equilibrium, the Gibbs free energy of a system is: Positive Negative Zero Undefined None 19. Entropy is a measure of: Disorder Order Temperature Pressure None 20. A reversible process is one that: Occurs slowly Can be undone without any effect on the surroundings Occurs without any energy exchange Generates maximum entropy None 21. Which of the following is a state function? Heat Work Temperature Entropy None 22. The change in entropy of a system at constant temperature is given by: ΔS = ΔH – TΔU ΔS = q / T ΔS = ΔG – TΔS ΔS = ΔG / T None 23. The condition for spontaneity at constant temperature and pressure is: ΔG < 0 ΔG = 0 ΔG > 0 ΔG = ΔH – TΔS None 24. Enthalpy is a state function. This means that: It depends only on the initial and final states of the system It remains constant throughout a process It depends on the path taken by the system It is always positive None 25. Enthalpy change in a reaction can be determined experimentally using which of the following techniques? Calorimetry Spectroscopy Chromatography Electrophoresis None 1 out of 3 Thanks For Submitting Your Quiz !! Quiz 2 | Unit II Molecular Transport in Living System Your Good Name: Your College Name: Morning/Evening/Private: Email: 1. What is Brownian motion? Motion of a particle in a straight line Motion of particles in a crystal lattice Random motion of particles in a fluid Motion of particles in a vacuum None 2. In Brownian motion, what type of friction dominates the motion of particles? Viscous Friction Static Friction Kinetic Friction Rolling Friction None 3. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the magnitude of Brownian motion? Temperature Particle size Fluid density Particle charge None 4. What is the diffusion coefficient? A measure of a particle’s mass A measure of a particle’s size A measure of a particle’s velocity A measure of how fast particles spread out None 5. Fick's law is primarily used to determine: The rate of diffusion of a substance The temperature of a substance The concentration gradient of a substance The pressure of a substance None 6. According to Fick's law, the rate of diffusion is directly proportional to: The concentration gradient The temperature The pressure The viscosity None 7. Which factor affects the rate of diffusion according to Fick's law? Surface area Temperature Thickness of the membrane All of the above None 8. What does Fick's law predict about the movement of particles in a concentration gradient? Particles move from high concentration to low concentration Particles remain stationary Particles move from low concentration to high concentration Particles move randomly None 9. What is the fundamental concept underlying membrane potential? Movement of ions across a membrane Osmotic pressure across a membrane Electrical resistance of a membrane Diffusion of molecules through a membrane None 10. What does the Nernst equation calculate? Membrane capacitance Membrane permeability Membrane potential Rate of diffusion None 11. Which ion primarily contributes to the resting membrane potential in neurons? Sodium (Na+) Potassium (K+) Calcium (Ca2+) Chloride (Cl-) None 12. What effect does increasing membrane permeability to potassium ions have on resting membrane potential? Decreases it No effect Increases it Depends on the concentration gradient None 13. What is the typical resting membrane potential of a neuron? -70 mV +40 mV 0 mV -90 mV None 14. The movement of ions such as sodium and potassium across the cell membrane against their concentration gradients is primarily facilitated by: Simple Diffusion Osmosis Active Transport Facilitated Diffusion None 15. Which of the following transport mechanisms requires a concentration gradient? Osmosis Facilitated Diffusion Active Transport Both A and B None 16. In which transport mechanism do molecules move from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration? Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Simple diffusion Active transport None 17. Active transport is often involved in: Maintaining osmotic balance Regulating cell size Facilitating gas exchange None of the above None 18. Which of the following is a characteristic of passive transport? Requires energy input Moves substances against the concentration gradient Occurs without the need for transport proteins Requires specific carrier proteins or channels None 19. Which of the following is an example of facilitated diffusion? Movement of oxygen through the lipid bilayer Movement of water through aquaporins Movement of glucose through GLUT transporters Movement of ions through ion channels None 20. Which of the following is NOT an example of active transport? Sodium-Potassium Pump Endocytosis Exocytosis Glucose transport via GLUT proteins None 21. Which of the following best describes diffusion? Movement of molecules from low to high concentration Movement of molecules requiring energy Movement of molecules from high to low concentration Movement of water only None 22. The sodium-potassium pump moves: 2 Na+ out, 3 K+ in 2 Na+ in, 3 K+ out 3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in 3 Na+ in, 2 K+ out None 23. Which equation accounts for multiple ion species in calculating membrane potential? Nernst equation Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation Michaelis-Menten equation Fick’s law None 24. The primary purpose of the sodium-potassium pump is to: Generate ATP Facilitate diffusion Maintain ion concentration gradients Create action potentials None 25. Which ion has a higher concentration inside the cell compared to outside? Sodium (Na+) Potassium (K+) Calcium (Ca2+) Chloride (Cl-) None 1 out of 3 Thanks For Submitting Your Quiz !! Quiz 3 | Unit-III Methods Of Studying Macromolecules Your Good Name: Your College Name: Morning/Evening/Private: Email: 1. Affinity chromatography utilizes: Molecular charge Molecular shape Specific binding between a molecule and its ligand Viscosity of a solution None 2. Which stationary phase is used in gel filtration chromatography? Agarose or polyacrylamide beads Silica gel Paper Activated charcoal None 3. Electrophoresis separates molecules based on: Color Shape Net charge and size Temperature None 4. Which type of electrophoresis does not involve a gel matrix? SDS-PAGE Agarose electrophoresis Free-boundary electrophoresis Capillary electrophoresis None 5. Which property of a macromolecule is primarily assessed by viscosity measurements? Molecular charge Molecular shape and size pH sensitivity Binding affinity None 6. Relative viscosity is calculated by comparing: pH of two solutions Absorbance values Flow time of solvent and solution Conductivity of solutions None 7. The unit of viscosity is: Pascal Poise Hertz Dalton None 8. A polymer that shows high intrinsic viscosity likely has: Low molecular mass Branched and compact structure Linear and extended structure Spherical structure None 9. In gel filtration chromatography, macromolecules are separated based on: Charge Size Polarity Affinity None 10. Which of the following will elute first in gel filtration chromatography? Small proteins Large proteins Negatively charged proteins Hydrophilic proteins None 11. In SDS-PAGE, SDS imparts what property to proteins? Positive charge Uniform negative charge Fluorescence Solubility None 12. Free-boundary electrophoresis is performed in: Agarose gel Liquid buffer without gel Polyacrylamide gel Chromatographic column None 13. Sedimentation velocity is used to study: Rate of macromolecular separation Molecular charge Color of macromolecules Heat sensitivity None 14. Sedimentation equilibrium allows determination of: Sedimentation rate only Molecular weight without shape effect Only density Electrical charge None 15. Svedberg unit (S) is the unit of: pH Viscosity Sedimentation coefficient Molecular weight None 16. A particle with a high Svedberg value is likely to be: Large and dense Small and light Negatively charged Basic in nature None 17. A researcher wants to separate proteins based on size and estimate their molecular weight. Which combination is best? SDS-PAGE and ion-exchange chromatography Gel filtration and SDS-PAGE Affinity chromatography and blotting Viscosity and affinity None 18. Which method can give an approximate molecular weight of a native protein complex in solution? SDS-PAGE Affinity chromatography Sedimentation equilibrium Paper chromatography None 19. Which method is most suitable to assess protein-ligand interaction specificity? Ion-exchange chromatography Gel filtration Affinity chromatography Electrophoresis None 20. To study shape and conformational changes in macromolecules, which method is useful? Viscosity measurement Paper chromatography Simple diffusion test Colorimetric test None 21. Which method allows monitoring the homogeneity of a macromolecular sample during centrifugation? Sedimentation velocity Gel electrophoresis Ion exchange Chromatofocusing None 22. In ion-exchange chromatography, proteins are separated based on their: Molecular weight Charge Density Shape None 23. An increase in viscosity of a solution indicates: Smaller molecular weight Presence of more solvent Larger or more elongated molecules Degradation of macromolecules None 24. The migration rate of a molecule in electrophoresis depends on all EXCEPT: Electric field strength Buffer pH Shape of the gel tank Size of the molecule None 25. The ultracentrifuge is used in: Paper chromatography Free-boundary electrophoresis Sedimentation analysis Viscosity measurement None 1 out of 3 Thanks For Submitting Your Quiz !! Quiz 4 |Unit-IV Intrection of Molecules in 3-D Space Determining Binding Dissociation Constant Your Good Name: Your College Name: Morning/Evening/Private: Email: 1. What type of interaction occurs between two different molecules? Covalent Intermolecular Intramolecular Nuclear None 2. Hydrogen bonding is an example of: Intramolecular bonding Covalent bonding Intermolecular interaction Ionic bonding None 3. Which force is primarily responsible for the binding of a ligand to a receptor? Gravitational van der Waals Intermolecular forces Covalent bonding None 4. Dissociation constant (Kd) is a measure of: Affinity between two molecules Enzyme activity Protein folding Ionic strength None 5. Which statement best describes the binding constant (Ka)? It tells how unstable a complex is It equals 1/Kd It is always less than 1 It describes the solubility of gases None 6. Which of the following does NOT involve intermolecular forces? Protein-ligand binding Base pairing in DNA Folding of protein secondary structures Antibody-antigen interaction None 7. Which of the following is a weak non-covalent interaction? Ionic bond Hydrogen bond Peptide bond Disulfide bond None 8. An increase in dissociation constant (Kd) implies: Higher binding affinity No change in interaction strength Lower binding affinity Stronger covalent bond None 9. Intramolecular interactions occur: Within the same molecule Between two separate molecules Between solvent and solute Inside a solvent None 10. Which of the following contributes to molecular recognition? Shape complementarity Charge interactions Hydrogen bonding All of the above None 11. In receptor-ligand interaction, the lower the Kd: The faster the binding The weaker the interaction The stronger the affinity The higher the solubility None 12. van der Waals interactions are: Strong covalent bonds Electrostatic attractions Weak interactions due to induced dipoles Hydrogen bonds None 13. Which interaction stabilizes the tertiary structure of a protein? Intramolecular interactions Intermolecular interactions DNA-DNA pairing Ligand-receptor binding None 14. Enzymatic reaction Enzymatic reaction Intermolecular interaction Intramolecular bonding Protein hydrolysis None 15. Which factor does NOT affect molecular binding affinity? Molecular shape Temperature Solvent polarity Atomic mass None 16. What determines the specificity of molecular binding? Random diffusion Concentration only Complementary shape and charge Temperature only None 17. Which of the following techniques is used to determine binding constants? Gel electrophoresis UV spectroscopy Surface Plasmon Resonance ELISA None 18. Why are intermolecular forces important in drug design? They affect color of the drug They stabilize the tablet form They determine binding specificity and strength They improve water solubility only None 19. A low Kd value indicates: Weak and temporary binding Strong and stable binding No binding occurs Unfavorable interaction None 20. In a dynamic equilibrium of binding, what happens at Kd? Half of receptors are occupied Binding stops Maximum binding occurs No ligand is present None 21. Which of the following best explains how temperature affects Kd? Kd always increases Higher temperature disrupts non-covalent interactions, increasing Kd Kd is unaffected Lower temperature strengthens covalent bonds None 22. Which is stronger: van der Waals < Hydrogen bond < Ionic bond Hydrogen bond < Ionic bond < van der Waals Ionic bond < van der Waals < Hydrogen bond Ionic bond = Hydrogen bond = van der Waals None 23. Which interaction is essential in antigen-antibody recognition? van der Waals only Disulfide bond Multiple weak intermolecular forces Intramolecular folding None 24. Why is intramolecular interaction significant in protein folding? Helps attract other molecules Determines solubility Stabilizes specific 3D conformations Disrupts bonding None 25. The strength of molecular binding is influenced by: Only pH Only temperature Environment, charge, polarity, and shape None of the above None 1 out of 3 Thanks For Submitting Your Quiz !! Quiz 5 | Unit-V Biomolecular Structure Your Good Name: Your College Name: Morning/Evening/Private: Email: 1. What is the monomer of proteins? Fatty acids Amino acids Monosaccharides Nucleotides None 2. Which of the following statements about DNA is FALSE? It contains the sugar deoxyribose It is single-stranded in humans It stores genetic information Its strands are antiparallel None 3. Which RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome? rRNA tRNA mRNA snRNA None 4. The base pairing in DNA is: A-G, C-T A-U, C-G A-T, C-G A-C, T-G None 5. Which component is present in RNA but not in DNA? Thymine Ribose Deoxyribose Double helix None 6. The 3D structure of a protein is mostly determined by: Enzymes mRNA sequence Amino acid sequence Phospholipids None 7. Which of the following is NOT a nucleic acid? DNA RNA ATP Collagen None 8. What is the direction of synthesis of a polypeptide chain? 5′ to 3′ C-terminal to N-terminal N-terminal to C-terminal 3′ to 5′ None 9. Which bond forms between two amino acids? Glycosidic bond Hydrogen bond Peptide bond Phosphodiester bond None 10. Which of the following bonds stabilizes the secondary structure of proteins? Disulfide bonds Hydrogen bonds Peptide bonds Ionic bonds None 11. Which level of protein structure is lost first during denaturation? Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary None 12. Which of the following amino acids contains sulfur? Alanine Glycine Cysteine Tyrosine None 13. Which of the following contains codons? tRNA rRNA mRNA DNA only None 14. In eukaryotes, which RNA is most abundant? tRNA mRNA rRNA snRNA None 15. Which enzyme is responsible for joining Okazaki fragments? DNA helicase DNA ligase DNA polymerase RNA primase None 16. DNA replication occurs in which cell phase? G1 S phase G2 M phase None 17. Why is RNA more reactive than DNA? Double-stranded nature Lacks phosphate Presence of uracil Ribose has hydroxyl group at 2’ position None 18. A DNA molecule with 30% adenine will have how much cytosine? 20% 30% 40% 70% None 19. Which base is found only in RNA? Thymine Cytosine Uracil Adenine None 20. Which best explains why denatured enzymes lose function? DNA mutation Substrate absence Loss of active site shape Broken phosphodiester bonds None 21. Which level of protein structure is directly encoded by DNA? Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary None 22. Which of the following is a double-stranded molecule? mRNA DNA tRNA rRNA None 23. Which structure in RNA allows it to fold into functional shapes? Phosphate backbone Antiparallel strands Base pairing N-terminal domains None 24. The tertiary structure of a protein is stabilized by all EXCEPT: Ionic bonds Disulfide bonds Hydrophobic interactions Phosphodiester bonds None 25. How many nitrogenous bases are there in DNA? 2 3 4 5 None 1 out of 3 Thanks For Submitting Your Quiz !! Quiz 6 | Unit-VI Biophysical Process Your Good Name: Your College Name: Morning/Evening/Private: Email: 1. Which physical law is most relevant in understanding muscle force and joint movement? Boyle’s Law Newton’s Laws Pascal’s Law Ohm’s Law None 2. The basic unit of mechanical force is: Joule Newton Watt Pascal None 3. ATP releases energy when: It binds with glucose A phosphate group is added A phosphate group is removed It becomes DNA None 4. In biomechanics, torque is best defined as: Rate of motion Rotational force Linear pressure Inertia None 5. Which organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production? Ribosome Nucleus Mitochondria Lysosome None 6. The movement of ions under magnetic influence in tissues is the basis of: MRI ECG PET scan EEG None 7. Which of the following is an anaerobic process? Krebs cycle Glycolysis Oxidative phosphorylation Electron transport chain None 8. Which of the following is a magnetic property of human tissues used in MRI? Magnetoresistance Diamagnetism Ferromagnetism Paramagnetism None 9. What is the main energy currency of the cell? NADH ADP Glucose ATP None 10. Which biomechanical concept explains how tendons transmit force? Elastic recoil Viscous drag Kinetic energy Diffusion None 11. What is the unit of energy? Newton Joule Pascal Ampere None 12. Which factor does not affect biomechanical movement? Mass of body Muscle force Magnetic susceptibility Joint angle None 13. In terms of bioenergetics, which of the following has the highest ATP yield? Anaerobic glycolysis Lactic acid fermentation Aerobic respiration Alcoholic fermentation None 14. Which is the first step in cellular respiration? Glycolysis Krebs cycle ETC Oxidative phosphorylation None 15. Which of the following is a direct application of biomagnetism in clinical diagnosis? X-ray Ultrasound MRI CT scan None 16. Biomechanics helps in understanding: Emotional behavior Electrical impulses in nerves Movement and posture Hormonal feedback None 17. ATP stands for: Adenosine triphosphate Adenine trisulfate Alpha tri protein Adenosine tetraphosphate None 18. Which muscle type contributes most to voluntary biomechanics? Smooth muscle Cardiac muscle Skeletal muscle Visceral muscle None 19. Which of the following explains the role of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction? Provides oxygen Buffers pH Regenerates ATP quickly Forms lactic acid None 20. Which of the following structures has the most biomechanical stability? Tendon Ligament Bone Cartilage None 21. What type of biomechanical force is applied when compressing a joint? Shear Torsion Tension Compression None 22. In muscle mechanics, which component acts like a spring during contraction and relaxation? Myosin Actin Titin Troponin None 23. Energy released during respiration is stored in: RNA DNA ATP Glucose None 24. Which property of hydrogen nuclei allows MRI to work? Their charge Their mass Their spin Their size None 25. What is the relationship between work, force, and distance? Work = Force × Distance Work = Distance / Force Work = Force / Distance Work = Energy × Distance None 1 out of 3 Thanks For Submitting Your Quiz !!